Nursing Elites

1. When a client needs oxygen therapy, what is the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula?

• A. 2 liters/minute
• B. 4 liters/minute
• C. 6 liters/minute
• D. 8 liters/minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 6 liters/minute. When a client requires oxygen therapy, the maximum flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula is 6 liters/minute. Nasal cannula can effectively deliver oxygen up to 6 liters/minute. Flow rates exceeding 6 liters/minute may lead to drying of the nasal passages and discomfort for the client. Higher flow rates, like 8 liters/minute, should be administered using a mask to ensure sufficient oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they indicate flow rates that surpass the recommended maximum for nasal cannula delivery.

2. A nurse monitoring a client with a chest tube notes that there is no tidaling of fluid in the water seal chamber. After further assessment, the nurse suspects that the client's lung has reexpanded and notifies the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider verifies with the use of a chest x-ray that the lung has reexpanded, then calls the nurse to ask that the chest tube be removed. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Explain the procedure to the client, then remove the chest tube.
• B. Call the nursing supervisor.
• C. Inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure.
• D. Obtain petrolatum-impregnated gauze and ask another nurse to assist in removing the chest tube.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure. Actual removal of a chest tube is the duty of a healthcare provider. If the healthcare provider insists that the nurse remove the tube, the nurse must contact the nursing supervisor. Some agencies' policies and procedures may permit an advanced practice nurse to remove a chest tube, but there is no information in the question to indicate that the nurse is an advanced practice nurse. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should not proceed with removing the chest tube without proper authorization. Choice B is incorrect as calling the nursing supervisor should come after clarifying with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not begin the process of removing the chest tube without proper guidance and authorization.

3. A health care provider asks the nurse caring for a client with a new colostomy to request the hospital's stoma nurse to visit the client and assist with colostomy care. The nurse initiates the consultation, understanding that the stoma nurse will be able to influence the client because of which type of power?

• A. Expert power
• B. Referent power
• C. Coercive power
• D. Reward power

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Power is the ability to influence others to achieve goals. Expert power results from knowledge and skills that one possesses that are needed by others. In this scenario, the stoma nurse's expertise in colostomy care gives them the ability to influence the client effectively. Reward power is based on the ability to grant rewards and favors, which is not applicable in this situation. Coercive power is based on fear and the ability to punish, which is not the case in seeking assistance for colostomy care. Referent power results from followers' desire to identify with a powerful person, which is not the primary influence in this context.

4. What are the hazards of improper splinting?

• A. Aggravation of a bone or joint injury
• B. Reduced distal circulation
• C. Delay in transporting a client with a life-threatening injury
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hazards of improper splinting can lead to the aggravation of a bone or joint injury, reduced distal circulation, and delay in transporting a client with a life-threatening injury. Choosing 'All of the above' (Option D) is the correct answer as it encompasses all the hazards mentioned. Option A is incorrect because it only addresses one aspect of the hazards. Option B is incorrect as it does not cover all the hazards associated with improper splinting. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on only one hazard and does not account for the others.

5. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

• A. Bell's palsy
• B. Guillain-Barr� syndrome
• C. Trigeminal neuralgia
• D. Tetanus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barr� syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

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