Nursing Elites

1. The nurse manager of a quality improvement program asks a nurse in the neurological unit to conduct a retrospective audit. Which action should the auditing nurse plan to perform in this type of audit?

• A. Checking the crash cart to ensure that all needed supplies are readily available in case of an emergency
• B. Checking the documentation written by a new nursing graduate on her assigned clients at the end of the shift
• C. Reviewing neurological assessment checklists for all clients on the unit to ensure that these assessments are being conducted as prescribed
• D. Obtaining the assigned medical record from the hospital's medical record room to review documentation made during a client's hospital stay

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quality improvement, also known as performance improvement, focuses on processes contributing to client safety and care outcomes. Retrospective audits involve reviewing medical records after discharge for compliance with standards. Concurrent audits assess staff compliance during a client's stay. Therefore, obtaining the medical record from the hospital's record room for review is crucial in a retrospective audit. Options A, B, and C are more suited for concurrent audits as they involve real-time assessment during a client's stay.

2. Which isolation procedure will be followed for secretions and blood?

• A. Respiratory Isolation
• B. Standard Precautions
• C. Contact Isolation
• D. Droplet Isolation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Standard Precautions. Standard precautions are taken in all situations for all clients and involve all body secretions except sweat. They are designed to reduce the rate of transmission of microbes from one host to another or one source to another. Respiratory Isolation (Choice A) is used for diseases transmitted by airborne particles, not secretions and blood. Contact Isolation (Choice C) is for clients known or suspected to be infected with microorganisms that can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact. Droplet Isolation (Choice D) is used for diseases transmitted by large respiratory droplets expelled during coughing, sneezing, talking, or procedures.

3. All of the following clients are in need of an emergency assessment except:

• A. a bleeding client who has an injury from falling debris.
• B. an unresponsive client.
• C. a client with an old injury.
• D. a pregnant woman with imminent delivery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client with an old injury.' Emergency assessments are required for immediate and life-threatening situations. Clients A, B, and D are in need of emergency assessments due to their critical conditions. Choice C, a client with an old injury, does not require an emergency assessment as it is not an acute or life-threatening situation. While the client with an old injury may still need medical attention, it does not necessitate an emergency assessment as the condition is not currently life-threatening or in need of immediate intervention.

4. The nurse assesses a client for physiological risk factors for falls. The nurse should conclude that the client is not at risk if which of the following is discovered?

• A. history of dizziness
• B. need for a wheelchair due to reduced mobility
• C. weakness and fatigue noted when climbing stairs
• D. intact recent and remote memory

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is intact recent and remote memory. Intact memory function indicates that the client is less likely to be at risk for falls as it suggests cognitive awareness and orientation, which are important for safety. Choices A, B, and C are risk factors for falls: a history of dizziness can lead to imbalance, the need for a wheelchair due to reduced mobility can increase fall risk, and weakness and fatigue when climbing stairs indicate physical limitations that predispose a client to falls. Therefore, these options would suggest an increased risk for falls.

5. The LPN is caring for a client with an NG tube, and the RN administers evening medications through the NG tube. The client asks if he can lie down when the nurse leaves the room. What is the most appropriate response?

• A. You can lie down in 1 hour.
• B. You can lie down in 30 minutes if your NG residual is below 50 mL.
• C. You can lie down in about 30 minutes.
• D. Yes, feel free to lie down.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After administering medication through an NG tube, the client should remain upright for 30 minutes to ensure proper absorption of the medications. Therefore, the most appropriate response is to advise the client to lie down in 1 hour. Choice B is incorrect because waiting only 30 minutes may not provide sufficient time for the medications to be fully absorbed, as the recommended time is 30 minutes. Choice C is misleading as it incorrectly suggests that lying down in about 30 minutes is acceptable, which could compromise medication effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as it does not provide accurate information regarding the appropriate timing for lying down after NG tube medication administration, potentially leading to decreased medication absorption.

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