Nursing Elites

1. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) works on an adult medical/surgical unit and has been pulled to work on the burn unit, which cares for clients of all ages. What should the LPN do?

• A. The LPN should take the assignment, but make it clear they will only care for adult clients.
• B. The LPN should take the assignment, but explain the situation to the charge nurse and ask for a quick orientation before starting.
• C. The LPN should refuse to take the assignment, as caring for the infant and child population is not within their scope of practice.
• D. The LPN should take the assignment, but ask to be paired with a more experienced LPN.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial for the LPN to demonstrate flexibility and a willingness to adapt to the new assignment that involves caring for clients of all ages. While the LPN may have expertise in a specific nursing area, it is essential to be able to provide care to diverse client populations. Accepting the assignment reflects a commitment to teamwork and patient care. However, to ensure safe and competent care, the LPN should communicate with the charge nurse about the situation. Requesting a quick orientation will help the LPN familiarize themselves with the burn unit's specific requirements, equipment, and protocols. This proactive approach allows the LPN to address any concerns, ask questions, and seek necessary support, ultimately ensuring the best care for all clients in the burn unit. Choice A is incorrect because limiting care to only adult clients may not be feasible in a unit that cares for clients of all ages. Choice C is incorrect as refusing the assignment outright may not be the best approach without considering alternatives. Choice D is not the most effective option as asking to be paired with a more experienced LPN does not address the need for a quick orientation to the new unit.

2. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

3. A primigravida begins labor when her family is unavailable and she is alone. She is very upset that her family is not with her. Which approach can the nurse take to meet the client's needs at this time?

• A. asking whether another individual wants to be her support person
• B. assuring her that a nursing staff member will be with her at all times
• C. telling her you will try to locate her family
• D. reinforcing the woman's confidence in her own abilities to cope and maintain a sense of control

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the best approach for the nurse is to ask whether another individual wants to be the client's support person. This empowers the client to choose someone to be with her until her family can join her, providing the needed support and comfort. Assuring her that a nursing staff member will be with her at all times (Choice B) may not fully address her emotional needs for familiar support. Telling her you will try to locate her family (Choice C) may not be feasible in the immediate situation and may not provide immediate emotional support. While reinforcing the woman's confidence in her own abilities (Choice D) is important, it may not fully address her current need for emotional support and presence of a companion.

4. The method of splinting is always dictated by:

• A. location of the injury and whether it is open or closed.
• B. the severity of the client's condition and the priority decision.
• C. the number of available rescuers and the type of splints.
• D. all of the above.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the severity of the client's condition and the priority decision.' When determining the method of splinting, it is crucial to consider the severity of the client's condition and make decisions based on their priority. Choice A is incorrect because while the location of the injury and whether it is open or closed are important factors, they do not always dictate the method of splinting. Choice C is incorrect as the number of available rescuers and the type of splints may impact the execution of splinting but do not solely dictate the method. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests that all the factors mentioned dictate the method, but in reality, the severity of the client's condition and the priority decision are the primary factors.

5. What should be the primary action for a client who has just vomited 300 cc of bright red blood?

• A. Document the vomiting.
• B. Increase IV fluids.
• C. Get a complete blood count.
• D. Check the blood pressure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for a client who has just vomited 300 cc of bright red blood is to check the blood pressure. This assessment is crucial to evaluate for hypotension, which could indicate significant blood loss and the need for immediate intervention. Documenting the vomiting is important for the client's medical record but not the initial priority. Increasing IV fluids and getting a complete blood count are necessary steps but should follow the assessment of the client's hemodynamic status.

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