Nursing Elites

1. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) works on an adult medical/surgical unit and has been pulled to work on the burn unit, which cares for clients of all ages. What should the LPN do?

• A. The LPN should take the assignment, but make it clear they will only care for adult clients.
• B. The LPN should take the assignment, but explain the situation to the charge nurse and ask for a quick orientation before starting.
• C. The LPN should refuse to take the assignment, as caring for the infant and child population is not within their scope of practice.
• D. The LPN should take the assignment, but ask to be paired with a more experienced LPN.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial for the LPN to demonstrate flexibility and a willingness to adapt to the new assignment that involves caring for clients of all ages. While the LPN may have expertise in a specific nursing area, it is essential to be able to provide care to diverse client populations. Accepting the assignment reflects a commitment to teamwork and patient care. However, to ensure safe and competent care, the LPN should communicate with the charge nurse about the situation. Requesting a quick orientation will help the LPN familiarize themselves with the burn unit's specific requirements, equipment, and protocols. This proactive approach allows the LPN to address any concerns, ask questions, and seek necessary support, ultimately ensuring the best care for all clients in the burn unit. Choice A is incorrect because limiting care to only adult clients may not be feasible in a unit that cares for clients of all ages. Choice C is incorrect as refusing the assignment outright may not be the best approach without considering alternatives. Choice D is not the most effective option as asking to be paired with a more experienced LPN does not address the need for a quick orientation to the new unit.

2. A nurse in charge of a long-term care facility who is working with a nursing assistant on the night shift prepares to take a break. To ensure client safety during the break, which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.

• A. Asking the nursing assistant to contact the health care provider during the nurse’s break if a client’s pain medication is not effective
• B. Informing the nursing assistant that she is leaving the nursing unit to get a cup of coffee from a vending machine in the lobby
• C. Asking the nursing assistant to administer a medication placed at the client's bedside if the client awakens
• D. Conducting client rounds before taking the break

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse is responsible for ensuring client safety at all times and must not leave the nursing unit for any reason during the shift. The nurse’s break should be taken in a designated area located on the nursing unit. Before taking the break, the nurse should check all clients to ensure that they are safe and comfortable and that their needs have been met. Conducting client rounds before taking the break is crucial to assess the clients' conditions and address any immediate needs, ensuring their safety. Asking the nursing assistant to contact the health care provider during the nurse’s break is not appropriate as the nurse should handle this responsibility. Leaving the nursing unit to get coffee is not recommended as the nurse should stay within the unit to respond promptly to any client needs. Asking the nursing assistant to administer medication or make clinical decisions is outside the scope of their practice and should not be delegated.

3. What condition is mammography used to detect?

• A. pain
• B. tumor
• C. edema
• D. epilepsy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mammography is specifically used to detect tumors or abnormal growths, especially in breast tissue. It is not a tool for identifying pain, edema, or epilepsy. Therefore, the correct answer is 'tumor.' Pain is a symptom, edema is swelling, and epilepsy is a neurological disorder; none of these are conditions typically detected through mammography.

4. The client is being taught about the use of Rifampin for prophylaxis following exposure to meningitis. What change in bodily functions should the client be informed about?

• A. The client's urine may turn blue.
• B. The client remains infectious to others for 48 hours.
• C. The client's contact lenses may be stained orange.
• D. The client's skin may take on a crimson glow.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained. Clients should be taught about these side effects to avoid unnecessary concern. Option A is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the urine to turn blue. Option B is incorrect as the client is not infectious to others due to taking Rifampin for prophylaxis. Option D is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the skin to take on a crimson glow.

5. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

• A. Placenta previa.
• B. Eclampsia.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Uterine rupture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.

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