NCLEX-PN
Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet
1. A client with dumping syndrome should ___________ while a client with GERD should ___________.
- A. lie down 1 hour after meals; sit up at least 30 minutes after meals
- B. sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
- C. sit up after meals; sit up after meals
- D. lie down after meals; lie down after meals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with dumping syndrome should lie down after eating to decrease the symptoms of dumping syndrome, which include rapid gastric emptying leading to various gastrointestinal symptoms. On the other hand, clients with GERD should sit up at least 30 minutes after meals to prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus. This position helps reduce symptoms by allowing gravity to keep the stomach contents in place, minimizing the chances of reflux. Therefore, the correct answer is to lie down 1 hour after eating for dumping syndrome and to sit up at least 30 minutes after eating for GERD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the appropriate positioning for each condition.
2. Distribution of a drug to various tissues depends on the amount of cardiac output to each type of tissue. Which tissue would receive the highest amount of cardiac output and thus the highest amount of a drug?
- A. skin
- B. adipose tissue
- C. skeletal muscle
- D. myocardium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'myocardium.' Highly perfused tissues include vital organs like the brain, heart, kidneys, adrenal glands, and liver. The myocardium, being heart muscle, receives the highest amount of cardiac output and thus the highest amount of a drug. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the skin and adipose tissue are poorly perfused, while skeletal muscle is less perfused compared to vital organs like the myocardium.
3. A case manager is reviewing notations made in clients' records. Which note indicates an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up?
- A. A client who exhibits signs of increased intracranial pressure after a craniotomy.
- B. A client who has sustained a stroke and dresses herself.
- C. A client with a spinal cord injury transfers himself from a bed to a wheelchair.
- D. Normal neurological findings are noted in a client with a cerebral aneurysm.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A case manager is responsible for coordinating a client's care and monitoring for unexpected outcomes. The situation that indicates an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up is when a client exhibits signs of increased intracranial pressure after a craniotomy. This indicates a deteriorating condition that requires urgent intervention. Choices B, C, and D describe expected outcomes or normal findings related to specific conditions, which do not demand immediate follow-up.
4. The nurse should teach parents of small children that the most common type of first-degree burn is:
- A. scalding from hot bath water or spills
- B. contact with hot surfaces such as stoves and fireplaces
- C. contact with flammable liquids or gases resulting in flash burns
- D. sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most common type of first-degree burn in small children is sunburn, often due to lack of protection and overexposure to the sun. This type of burn highlights the importance of educating parents about using sunscreens and ensuring children are adequately protected from the sun's harmful rays. Choices A, B, and C describe scenarios that can lead to burns but are not the most common type of first-degree burn in small children, making them incorrect.
5. A client is refusing to stay in the hospital because he does not agree with his healthcare treatment plan. The nurse stops the client from leaving due to concern for his health. Which of these legal charges could the nurse face?
- A. False imprisonment, as the nurse is not allowing the client to leave as he has decided to.
- B. Malpractice, as the nurse is intentionally keeping the patient from making his own decisions, thus violating that nursing duty.
- C. Invasion of privacy, as the nurse is getting involved in the patient's private decisions regarding healthcare.
- D. Negligence, as the nurse ignored the client's right to choose regarding his healthcare.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Refusing to let a client leave against medical advice (AMA) is a form of false imprisonment. In this scenario, the nurse is restricting the client's freedom of movement by preventing him from leaving the hospital, even though he has expressed his wish to leave. False imprisonment is a legal charge the nurse could face in this situation. The other options are incorrect: - Malpractice refers to professional negligence or failure to provide adequate care, not allowing a patient to make their own decisions. - Invasion of privacy involves disclosing confidential information without consent, not preventing a patient from leaving. - Negligence is the failure to take reasonable care, but it does not specifically address the act of restricting a patient from leaving against their wishes.
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