Nursing Elites

1. A client with dumping syndrome should ___________ while a client with GERD should ___________.

• A. lie down 1 hour after meals; sit up at least 30 minutes after meals
• B. sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
• C. sit up after meals; sit up after meals
• D. lie down after meals; lie down after meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with dumping syndrome should lie down after eating to decrease the symptoms of dumping syndrome, which include rapid gastric emptying leading to various gastrointestinal symptoms. On the other hand, clients with GERD should sit up at least 30 minutes after meals to prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus. This position helps reduce symptoms by allowing gravity to keep the stomach contents in place, minimizing the chances of reflux. Therefore, the correct answer is to lie down 1 hour after eating for dumping syndrome and to sit up at least 30 minutes after eating for GERD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the appropriate positioning for each condition.

2. During an emergency procedure, is the surgical timeout a requirement?

• A. The surgical timeout should be performed by the surgical team unless it would cause a delay leading to injury or death.
• B. No, the timeout is not necessary during an emergency procedure.
• C. No, the surgical timeout is not required in emergency procedures.
• D. Yes, the surgical timeout must be performed in all cases.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an emergency procedure, the surgical timeout should be performed unless doing so would cause a delay leading to injury or death. This is because the primary goal during an emergency is to swiftly address the critical situation. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that the timeout is not necessary, which is not accurate. Choice C is also incorrect as it suggests that the timeout is not required in emergency procedures, disregarding safety protocols. Choice D is incorrect as it wrongly states that the timeout must be performed in all cases without considering the potential risks associated with delays during emergencies.

3. Which of the following microorganisms are considered normal body flora?

• A. staphylococcus on the skin
• B. streptococcus in the nares
• C. candida albicans in the vagina
• D. pseudomonas in the blood

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Staphylococcus is considered normal body flora as it is commonly found on the skin, being a part of the normal microbiota. While streptococcus in the nares can be part of the normal flora of the upper respiratory tract, it is not as common or as widespread as staphylococcus on the skin. Candida albicans in the vagina is not considered normal flora; it is a common opportunistic pathogen in the vagina. Pseudomonas in the blood is also not considered normal body flora; pseudomonas is not typically found in the blood as part of the normal microbiota.

4. What is a significant point about Shigella that the nurse should acknowledge upon identifying it in a stool culture?

• A. People who have been in contact with the client need to be tested.
• B. Shigella is an airborne infection.
• C. Shigella is a bacteria sometimes found in stagnant water.
• D. The nurse should wear a one-way breathing apparatus when giving client care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shigella is a bacteria sometimes found in stagnant water. Transmission of Shigella is typically oral-fecal, so good hand washing and the use of gloves are the best means of prevention when caring for a client with Shigella. The bacteria can be found in food and water contaminated by fecal material. Incidences of Shigella are reportable in many states. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While it is important for close contacts to be aware and practice good hygiene, testing is not routinely indicated. Shigella is not an airborne infection; it is transmitted through contaminated food or water. A one-way breathing apparatus is not necessary for caring for a patient with Shigella; standard precautions, including handwashing and gloves, are sufficient.

5. While taking care of a client, the nurse thinks that physical therapy in the hospital might be beneficial to their condition. The following is the ideal referral process EXCEPT?

• A. Transport the client to the physical therapy room for treatment after receiving an official referral.
• B. Provide the physical therapist with the client's medical record after the referral.
• C. Contact the client's primary care provider to suggest a physical therapy referral.
• D. Request the client to self-refer to the physical therapist.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ideal referral process for a client to receive physical therapy in the hospital starts with the nurse contacting the client's primary care provider to discuss and suggest a physical therapy referral. The primary care provider should provide an official referral, which is crucial for initiating the treatment process. After obtaining the official referral, the nurse should provide the physical therapist with the client's medical record. This step is essential for the therapist to assess the client's condition and customize the treatment plan accordingly. Once the physical therapist is informed and prepared, the nurse can then transport the client to the physical therapy room for treatment. Therefore, the correct sequence is to first contact the primary care provider (Choice C), then provide the medical record (Choice B), and finally transport the client for treatment (Choice A). Choice D, suggesting the client self-refer to the physical therapist, is incorrect as the referral process should involve healthcare professionals to ensure proper assessment and treatment planning.

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