NCLEX-PN
Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet
1. A client with dumping syndrome should ___________ while a client with GERD should ___________.
- A. lie down 1 hour after meals; sit up at least 30 minutes after meals
- B. sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
- C. sit up after meals; sit up after meals
- D. lie down after meals; lie down after meals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with dumping syndrome should lie down after eating to decrease the symptoms of dumping syndrome, which include rapid gastric emptying leading to various gastrointestinal symptoms. On the other hand, clients with GERD should sit up at least 30 minutes after meals to prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus. This position helps reduce symptoms by allowing gravity to keep the stomach contents in place, minimizing the chances of reflux. Therefore, the correct answer is to lie down 1 hour after eating for dumping syndrome and to sit up at least 30 minutes after eating for GERD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the appropriate positioning for each condition.
2. A client whose right leg is in skeletal traction complains of pain in the leg. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Asking the client to wiggle their toes
- B. Medicating the client with the prescribed analgesic
- C. Realigning the client
- D. Removing some of the traction weights
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client in skeletal traction complains of pain, the priority action for the nurse is to realign the client. Severe pain may indicate the need for realignment or that the traction weights are too heavy. Realigning the client should be the initial response as it can help alleviate the pain by ensuring proper alignment. Asking the client to wiggle their toes may not address the underlying issue causing the pain. Removing traction weights should never be done unless specifically ordered by the healthcare provider as it can affect the traction's effectiveness. Medicating the client with analgesics should only be considered after attempting to address the cause of the pain, which in this case, is realignment.
3. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?
- A. renal failure
- B. psoriasis
- C. lupus
- D. cirrhosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client with cirrhosis is at risk for developing a high ammonia level due to impaired liver function. The liver normally converts ammonia into urea for excretion. In cirrhosis, this process is compromised, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure, psoriasis, and lupus do not typically cause high ammonia levels. Renal failure affects kidney function, while psoriasis and lupus are autoimmune conditions that do not directly impact ammonia metabolism.
4. While on the wound care team, the nurse notices that a fellow nurse opens extra colloid dressings that are often thrown away when they are not needed. What should the nurse do?
- A. Do nothing, as it is not impacting client care.
- B. Discuss with the colleague the concern about wasting supplies.
- C. Tell the charge nurse to stop ordering these dressings.
- D. Remove the colloid dressings from the shelf so that the nurse will find other supplies to use.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to discuss with the colleague the concern about wasting supplies. By addressing this issue, the nurse can promote cost-effective care within the unit. While it may not directly impact client care, the wastage of supplies affects the unit's supply cost, making choice A incorrect. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes the charge nurse is solely responsible for the ordering process and overlooks the opportunity for direct communication between colleagues. Choice D is incorrect as it involves taking matters into one's own hands rather than addressing the issue through communication and collaboration.
5. A health care provider informs a nurse that the husband of an unconscious client with terminal cancer will not grant permission for a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The health care provider tells the nurse to perform a 'slow code' and let the client 'rest in peace' if she stops breathing. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Telling the health care provider that the client would probably want to die in peace
- B. Telling the health care provider that if the client stops breathing, the health care provider will be called before any other actions are taken
- C. Telling the health care provider that all of the nurses on the unit agree with this plan
- D. Telling the health care provider that 'slow codes' are not acceptable
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse may not violate a family's request regarding the client's treatment plan. A 'slow code' is not acceptable, and the nurse should state this to the health care provider. The definition of a 'slow code' varies among health care facilities and personnel and could be interpreted as not performing resuscitative procedures as quickly as a competent person would. Resuscitative procedures that are performed more slowly than recommended by the American Heart Association are below the standard of care and could therefore serve as the basis for a lawsuit. The other options are inappropriate: Option A is speculative and does not address the issue directly; Option B does not challenge the unethical practice of a 'slow code'; Option C is irrelevant and does not address the ethical concerns raised by the health care provider's request.
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