Nursing Elites

1. How should the LPN document pain for a non-verbal client using the FLACC pain scale with these findings?

• A. 1
• B. 4
• C. 3
• D. 2

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '4'. The FLACC pain scale assesses pain in non-verbal patients based on five categories: Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability. In this case, the client exhibits occasional grimacing (1 point), relaxed legs (0 points), squirming (1 point), moans and whimpers (1 point), and is distractible (1 point). Adding these points together results in a total pain score of 4. Therefore, the LPN should document a pain score of 4 for this non-verbal client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the total pain score based on the given findings.

2. Which of the following medications might cause upper-gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding?

• A. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• B. Naprosyn (naproxen)
• C. Elavil (amitriptyline)
• D. Corgard (nadolol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Naprosyn (naproxen) is known to cause upper-gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding due to its effects on the stomach lining. Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate the stomach and increase the risk of UGI bleeding. On the other hand, Cardizem (diltiazem), Elavil (amitriptyline), and Corgard (nadolol) are not typically associated with UGI bleeding. Cardizem is a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension and angina, Elavil is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Corgard is a beta-blocker used for hypertension.

3. A nurse is planning to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with a communicable disease. The client refuses the medication and tells the nurse that the medication causes abdominal cramping. The nurse responds, 'The medication is needed to prevent the spread of infection, and if you don't take it orally I will have to give it to you in an intramuscular injection.' Which statement accurately describes the nurse's response to the client?

• A. The nurse is justified in administering the medication by way of the intramuscular route because the client has a communicable disease.
• B. The nurse could be charged with assault.
• C. Assault is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. If a nurse threatens to give a client a medication that the client refuses or threatens to give a client an injection without the client's consent, the nurse may be charged with assault. Therefore, the nurse is not justified in administering the medication. Battery is any intentional touching without the client's consent.
• D. The nurse will be justified in administering the medication by the intramuscular route once a prescription has been obtained from the health care provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer explains the concept of assault, which is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. In the scenario provided, the nurse's statement about administering the medication via an intramuscular injection without the client's consent constitutes a threat, potentially falling under the definition of assault. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse's action is not automatically justified solely by the client having a communicable disease. Choice D is also incorrect because even with a prescription, the nurse cannot administer the medication without the client's consent. Choice C provides a detailed explanation distinguishing assault from battery, which helps in understanding the legal implications of the nurse's response in this situation.

4. What spinal change occurring with pregnancy alters mobility?

• A. Scoliosis.
• B. Kyphosis.
• C. Lordosis.
• D. Ankylosing spondylitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lordosis.' During pregnancy, the enlarging uterus places increased weight on the spine, causing an exaggerated inward curvature known as lordosis. This change alters mobility by shifting the center of gravity forward, leading to a compensatory change in posture. Scoliosis (choice A) is a sideways curvature of the spine, not typically associated with pregnancy. Kyphosis (choice B) is an exaggerated outward curvature of the spine, while ankylosing spondylitis (choice D) is a chronic inflammatory condition affecting the spine, neither of which are directly related to the spinal changes seen in pregnancy.

5. When removing a client's gown with an intravenous line, what should the nurse do?

• A. temporarily disconnect the intravenous tubing at a point close to the client and thread it through the gown
• B. cut the gown with scissors
• C. thread the bag and tubing through the gown sleeve, keeping the line intact
• D. temporarily disconnect the tubing from the intravenous container and thread it through the gown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action when removing a client's gown with an intravenous line is to thread the bag and tubing through the gown sleeve while keeping the line intact. This method ensures that the system remains sterile and reduces the risk of infection. Temporarily disconnecting the tubing at a point close to the client or from the container introduces the potential for contamination. Cutting the gown with scissors should only be done in emergencies as it is not a standard practice and can compromise the integrity of the intravenous line. Therefore, the most appropriate and safe method is to thread the bag and tubing through the gown sleeve.

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