NCLEX-PN
Safe and Effective Care Environment Nclex PN Questions
1. How should the LPN document pain for a non-verbal client using the FLACC pain scale with these findings?
- A. 1
- B. 4
- C. 3
- D. 2
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: '4'. The FLACC pain scale assesses pain in non-verbal patients based on five categories: Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability. In this case, the client exhibits occasional grimacing (1 point), relaxed legs (0 points), squirming (1 point), moans and whimpers (1 point), and is distractible (1 point). Adding these points together results in a total pain score of 4. Therefore, the LPN should document a pain score of 4 for this non-verbal client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the total pain score based on the given findings.
2. A nurse manager asks a nurse to work overtime because of a short-staffing problem. The nurse has made plans to do Christmas shopping after work and does not want to work overtime. What is the most assertive response by the nurse to her nurse manager?
- A. "I'm not working overtime today."
- B. "I have plans after work and will not be able to work overtime."
- C. "You know how I hate to work overtime."
- D. "I will if you need me, but I am not happy about this."
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most assertive response in dealing with this conflict is the one that is direct and conveys a clear message in a positive manner. The nurse should assertively communicate her unavailability for overtime without being confrontational. Option A, "I'm not working overtime today," is too blunt and may come across as rude. Option C, "You know how I hate to work overtime," is not assertive but rather passive-aggressive. Option D, "I will if you need me, but I am not happy about this," is a passive-aggressive response as it implies compliance while expressing discontent. Option B, "I have plans after work and will not be able to work overtime," is the most appropriate response as it clearly states the nurse's unavailability without unnecessary aggression.
3. What spinal change occurring with pregnancy alters mobility?
- A. Scoliosis.
- B. Kyphosis.
- C. Lordosis.
- D. Ankylosing spondylitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lordosis.' During pregnancy, the enlarging uterus places increased weight on the spine, causing an exaggerated inward curvature known as lordosis. This change alters mobility by shifting the center of gravity forward, leading to a compensatory change in posture. Scoliosis (choice A) is a sideways curvature of the spine, not typically associated with pregnancy. Kyphosis (choice B) is an exaggerated outward curvature of the spine, while ankylosing spondylitis (choice D) is a chronic inflammatory condition affecting the spine, neither of which are directly related to the spinal changes seen in pregnancy.
4. While caring for the following clients, a pediatric nurse tells the charge nurse she must leave due to a family emergency. Which client would the charge nurse reassign to an LPN?
- A. An eight-year-old in diabetic ketoacidosis
- B. A six-year-old in sickle cell crisis
- C. A two-month-old with dehydration
- D. A five-year-old in skeletal traction
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is a five-year-old in skeletal traction. This task is within the scope of practice for an LPN and would need minimal assistance from an RN. The children with diabetic ketoacidosis, sickle cell crisis, and dehydration require close observation, good assessment skills, IVF needs, and medications that would be better managed by an RN. Reassigning the child in skeletal traction to an LPN ensures appropriate care while allowing the RN to focus on the more critical cases.
5. A client being treated for sickle cell disease has an order for pain medication. Morphine was ordered, but the nurse is having difficulty deciphering the dose. The nurse should ____.
- A. ask the attending physician to clarify the order, including the correct medication, dose, route, and frequency
- B. call the charge nurse to inform the attending physician and verify the order, including the correct medication, dose, route, and frequency
- C. call the attending physician to verbally verify the order, including the correct medication, dose, route, and frequency
- D. refrain from administering the medication until the charge nurse can assist in determining the correct dosage
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, when a nurse encounters difficulties in deciphering an order, the appropriate action is to contact the attending physician directly to clarify and verify the medication, dose, route, and frequency. It is crucial for the nurse to have a clear understanding of the order before administering any medication to ensure patient safety and proper treatment. Option A is incorrect as it suggests asking the attending physician to clarify without specifying the urgency of the situation. Option B involves an unnecessary additional step by first contacting the charge nurse before reaching out to the attending physician, potentially delaying the clarification process. Option D is incorrect as it advises refraining from administering the medication, which may not be necessary if the correct dosage can be promptly verified by contacting the attending physician.
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