Nursing Elites

1. In a disaster triage situation, which of the following should the nurse be least concerned with regarding a client in crisis?

• A. ability to breathe
• B. pallor or cyanosis of the skin
• C. number of accompanying family members
• D. motor function

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a disaster triage situation where quick decisions are crucial, the nurse's primary focus should be on factors directly related to the patient's immediate condition and survival. The ability to breathe, pallor or cyanosis of the skin, and motor function are critical indicators of a patient's health status and need for urgent intervention. In contrast, the number of accompanying family members, although important for emotional support, is not a priority when assessing and prioritizing care during a crisis. While emotional support is valuable, the focus in triage is on identifying and addressing the most critical and life-threatening issues first to maximize survival chances. Therefore, the nurse should be least concerned with the number of accompanying family members as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate medical needs in a crisis situation. Choices A, B, and D are all crucial factors to assess a client's health status and determine the urgency of intervention during a disaster triage. The ability to breathe indicates respiratory function, pallor or cyanosis of the skin reflect circulatory and oxygenation status, and motor function can hint at neurological impairment or injury, all of which are vital in determining the severity of the crisis and the immediate medical needs of the patient.

2. When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that:

• A. Pregnancy tests are not reliable while taking the drug.
• B. She must use a reliable form of birth control.
• C. She should not take the Category X drug on days she has intercourse.
• D. She must follow up with an endocrinologist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a drug is categorized as Category X, it signifies that there are significant risks of fetal abnormalities if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, women of child-bearing age/capacity should use reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while on the medication. This ensures that the client avoids the potential harm to the fetus. Option A is incorrect because pregnancy tests are not unreliable due to the drug, but rather the risk is related to potential harm to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as avoiding the drug only on days of intercourse does not provide sufficient protection against pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as the need for an endocrinologist is not directly related to the use of Category X drugs.

3. In an emergency situation where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery, what action is necessary with regard to informed consent?

• A. The healthcare team will proceed with the surgery as consent is not needed in emergencies.
• B. The healthcare team will wait until the client's family can be contacted for consent.
• C. The healthcare team will contact the hospital clergy to provide informed consent.
• D. The healthcare team will obtain consent from the client's legal guardian before proceeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where obtaining consent is not possible due to the client's condition, healthcare providers are allowed to perform life-saving procedures without informed consent. It is assumed that the client would want to receive necessary treatment to save their life. Therefore, the correct action is for the healthcare team to proceed with the surgery as consent is not needed. Waiting to contact the client's family for consent can delay life-saving treatment, risking the client's life. Contacting the hospital clergy for consent is unnecessary and can cause further delays. Obtaining consent from the client's legal guardian is not feasible in this critical situation and may lead to a delay in providing essential care.

4. An 85-year-old client is eligible for Medicare-reimbursable home care services. Referral is contingent on meeting which of the following criteria?

• A. homebound status, requiring skilled therapy care
• B. immediate previous hospitalization for acute care
• C. age
• D. requirement of nursing and social work support

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct criteria for Medicare-reimbursable home care services include the client being homebound and requiring a skilled service, such as physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy, nursing, or social work. Choice A is correct because it aligns with these requirements. Choice B is incorrect as immediate previous hospitalization is not a prerequisite for home care services. Choice C is incorrect as age alone does not determine eligibility for Medicare-reimbursable home care services. Choice D is incorrect as the requirement of nursing and social work support alone is not sufficient for Medicare-reimbursable home care services.

5. When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of a nasopharyngeal airway to insert, which body part should be measured on the client?

• A. corner of the mouth to tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A nasopharyngeal airway is measured from the tip of the nose to the earlobe. This measurement ensures that the airway is of the correct length to reach the nasopharynx without being too long or too short. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the appropriate measurement for selecting the correct size of a nasopharyngeal airway. The distance from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear (Choice A) is used to measure for an oropharyngeal airway, not a nasopharyngeal airway. Similarly, the other choices (B and C) do not correlate with the correct measurement of a nasopharyngeal airway.

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