Nursing Elites

1. The nurse receives an assignment of three clients. Which of the following should the nurse consider as the highest priority when determining which client to assess first?

• A. the client who most recently rang their call bell
• B. the client who has been waiting the longest for their call bell to be answered
• C. the client who is in the most pain
• D. the client who may have a risk for an airway obstruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize assessing a client with a potential airway obstruction first based on the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) principle. Maintaining a clear airway is crucial for oxygenation and ventilation, making it the highest priority. Choices A and B focus on call bells and waiting times, which are important but not life-threatening in comparison to airway concerns. While pain management is essential, it takes precedence after addressing immediate life-threatening issues like airway compromise.

2. What is mammography used to detect?

• A. pain
• B. tumor
• C. edema
• D. epilepsy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mammography is a diagnostic imaging technique specifically designed to detect tumors, cysts, or other abnormalities in breast tissue. It is not used to detect pain, edema, or epilepsy. Pain is a symptom, not a condition that mammography can detect. Edema refers to swelling and is not detectable through mammography. Epilepsy is a neurological disorder, not a condition detected by mammography.

3. Which of the following is not an indication for pelvic ultrasonography?

• A. to measure uterine size
• B. to detect multiple pregnancies
• C. to measure renal size
• D. to detect foreign bodies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pelvic ultrasonography is commonly used to assess various conditions. Choices A, B, and D are all valid reasons for performing pelvic ultrasonography. Measuring uterine size helps evaluate conditions like fibroids, while detecting multiple pregnancies is essential for prenatal care. Furthermore, identifying foreign bodies can aid in diagnosing certain conditions. However, assessing renal size is typically not a primary reason for pelvic ultrasonography, making choice C the correct answer.

4. Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. Protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.

5. Distribution of a drug to various tissues depends on the amount of cardiac output to each type of tissue. Which tissue would receive the highest amount of cardiac output and thus the highest amount of a drug?

• A. skin
• B. adipose tissue
• C. skeletal muscle
• D. myocardium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'myocardium.' Highly perfused tissues include vital organs like the brain, heart, kidneys, adrenal glands, and liver. The myocardium, being heart muscle, receives the highest amount of cardiac output and thus the highest amount of a drug. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the skin and adipose tissue are poorly perfused, while skeletal muscle is less perfused compared to vital organs like the myocardium.

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