Nursing Elites

1. The nurse receives an assignment of three clients. Which of the following should the nurse consider as the highest priority when determining which client to assess first?

• A. the client who most recently rang their call bell
• B. the client who has been waiting the longest for their call bell to be answered
• C. the client who is in the most pain
• D. the client who may have a risk for an airway obstruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize assessing a client with a potential airway obstruction first based on the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) principle. Maintaining a clear airway is crucial for oxygenation and ventilation, making it the highest priority. Choices A and B focus on call bells and waiting times, which are important but not life-threatening in comparison to airway concerns. While pain management is essential, it takes precedence after addressing immediate life-threatening issues like airway compromise.

2. A client has experienced a CVA with right hemiparesis and is ready for discharge from the hospital to a long-term care facility for rehab. To provide optimal continuity of care, the nurse should do all of the following except:

• A. document the current functional status
• B. have the physician fax a report to the receiving facility
• C. copy appropriate parts of the medical record for transport to the receiving facility
• D. phone a report to the facility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure optimal continuity of care for a client transitioning to a long-term care facility for rehab after a CVA, the nurse plays a crucial role in communication. Documenting the current functional status is essential for the receiving facility to plan appropriate care. Copying relevant parts of the medical record for transport provides important background information. Phoning a report directly to the facility is a direct and effective way to communicate the client's condition and care plan. However, having the physician fax a report to the receiving facility introduces an extra step that may delay essential information transfer and increase the risk of miscommunication. Therefore, it is not the optimal choice for ensuring seamless continuity of care.

3. In a disaster situation, the nurse assessing a diabetic client on insulin assesses for all of the following except:

• A. diabetic signs and symptoms.
• B. nutritional status.
• C. bleeding problems.
• D. availability of insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a disaster situation, when assessing a diabetic client on insulin, the nurse should assess for diabetic signs and symptoms to monitor the client's condition, nutritional status to ensure proper dietary management, and availability of insulin to maintain the client's medication regimen. Bleeding problems are not directly related to diabetes or insulin use, making it the exception in this assessment scenario. Therefore, bleeding problems would not be a typical focus of assessment in this context.

4. Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. Protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.

5. How far should the enema tube be inserted for a client to have a flatus-reducing enema?

• A. 4 inches.
• B. 6 inches.
• C. 2 inches.
• D. 8 inches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the enema tube 4 inches. Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter, which is typically around 4 inches in an adult. Inserting the tube only 2 inches is not far enough to reach this point. On the other hand, inserting the tube 6 or 8 inches is too far and might cause trauma to the bowel, which is unnecessary for a flatus-reducing enema. Therefore, the correct insertion depth of the enema tube is crucial to ensure effectiveness and safety in providing the intended treatment.

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