Nursing Elites

1. What is the role of the incident report in risk management?

• A. Liability protection.
• B. To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.
• C. To discipline staff for errors.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.' Incident reports are a crucial tool for collecting information about incidents to analyze them and prevent similar issues in the future. They are not primarily used for liability protection or disciplining staff. Therefore, choices A and C are incorrect. Selecting 'All of the above' (choice D) is not accurate as incident reports serve a specific purpose related to data analysis and risk prevention, excluding liability protection and staff discipline.

2. The client is unsure about making medical decisions as their disease progresses and wants to appoint someone to make these decisions. Which of the following options would be most appropriate?

• A. a living will
• B. informed consent
• C. a healthcare proxy
• D. non-informed consent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a healthcare proxy.' A healthcare proxy involves the client appointing an individual to make medical decisions on their behalf if they become unable to do so. This option allows the client to choose someone they trust to act in their best interests. Choice A, 'a living will,' is a legal document that outlines a person's wishes regarding medical treatment in case they are unable to communicate their decisions. While it is important, it does not involve appointing someone to make decisions. Choice B, 'informed consent,' is a process where a healthcare provider explains a treatment or procedure, including its risks and benefits, to a patient who can then decide whether to proceed. This is not about appointing someone to make decisions on the patient's behalf. Choice D, 'non-informed consent,' is not a valid concept in healthcare. Informed consent is crucial for respecting a patient's autonomy and decision-making capacity.

3. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

4. The LPN is auscultating for bowel sounds and hears between 3 and 4 bowel sounds per minute. This is a somewhat expected finding for which of these clients?

• A. a 63-year-old female undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer
• B. a 56-year-old female with dementia undergoing a swallow study
• C. a 34-year-old male with a PEG tube newly admitted for diabetic ketoacidosis
• D. a 45-year-old male recovering from a knee replacement under general anesthesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When recovering from general anesthesia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be expected due to the effects of the anesthesia on gut motility. For the other clients, hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would indicate an abnormal finding. In the context of the given situation, the client recovering from knee replacement surgery aligns with the expected range of bowel sounds post-general anesthesia. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C present scenarios where hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would be abnormal, indicating potential issues that need further evaluation.

5. After delivery, a newborn undergoes an Apgar assessment. What does this scoring system evaluate?

• A. heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, reflex irritability
• B. heart rate, bleeding, cyanosis, edema
• C. bleeding, reflex, edema
• D. respiratory effort, heart rate, seizures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar scoring system, developed by Virginia Apgar, an anesthesiologist, evaluates newborns based on five criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. These parameters provide a quick and simple assessment of a newborn's overall condition and the need for immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not encompass the essential elements evaluated by the Apgar scoring system.

Similar Questions