Nursing Elites

1. What is the role of the incident report in risk management?

• A. Liability protection.
• B. To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.
• C. To discipline staff for errors.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.' Incident reports are a crucial tool for collecting information about incidents to analyze them and prevent similar issues in the future. They are not primarily used for liability protection or disciplining staff. Therefore, choices A and C are incorrect. Selecting 'All of the above' (choice D) is not accurate as incident reports serve a specific purpose related to data analysis and risk prevention, excluding liability protection and staff discipline.

2. The physician's role in case management includes all of the following except:

• A. participating in interdisciplinary planning for clients.
• B. serving as the expert for resource utilization.
• C. consulting with the case management team to facilitate timely orders as needed.
• D. contributing to the documentation of a client's needs for services.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'serving as the expert for resource utilization.' While physicians play a crucial role in case management, their primary focus is on medical diagnosis and treatment rather than resource utilization. Choices A, C, and D are all roles that physicians typically fulfill in case management. A physician participating in interdisciplinary planning for clients ensures comprehensive care, consulting with the case management team helps in coordinating timely orders, and contributing to the documentation of a client's needs for services aids in providing appropriate care. Therefore, serving as the expert for resource utilization does not align with the primary responsibilities of a physician in case management.

3. A client with dumping syndrome should ___________ while a client with GERD should ___________.

• A. lie down 1 hour after meals; sit up at least 30 minutes after meals
• B. sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
• C. sit up after meals; sit up after meals
• D. lie down after meals; lie down after meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with dumping syndrome should lie down after eating to decrease the symptoms of dumping syndrome, which include rapid gastric emptying leading to various gastrointestinal symptoms. On the other hand, clients with GERD should sit up at least 30 minutes after meals to prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus. This position helps reduce symptoms by allowing gravity to keep the stomach contents in place, minimizing the chances of reflux. Therefore, the correct answer is to lie down 1 hour after eating for dumping syndrome and to sit up at least 30 minutes after eating for GERD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the appropriate positioning for each condition.

4. The healthcare provider is using Cognitive-Behavioral methods of pain control and knows that these methods can be expected to do all the following except:

• A. completely relieve all pain.
• B. provide benefit by restoring the client's sense of self-control.
• C. help the client to control symptoms.
• D. help the client actively participate in his or her care.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-Behavioral methods of pain control aim to provide benefit by restoring the client's sense of self-control, helping the client to control symptoms, and encouraging the client to actively participate in their care. However, these methods are not intended to completely relieve all pain. These interventions focus on perception and thought, aiming to influence how one interprets events and bodily sensations. Therefore, the correct answer is that they cannot completely relieve all pain, as pain relief is often a multifaceted approach that may require additional interventions beyond Cognitive-Behavioral methods. Choices B, C, and D are correct as Cognitive-Behavioral methods are designed to empower the individual in managing their pain and improving their overall well-being.

5. In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?

• A. ability to speak
• B. ability to hear
• C. oxygen saturation
• D. adventitious breath sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an emergency situation to assess for airway obstruction, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's ability to speak. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed, allowing air to pass through the vocal cords for speech production. Choices B, C, and D are not the primary assessments for determining airway obstruction. Assessing the ability to hear is not directly related to an airway obstruction. While oxygen saturation and adventitious breath sounds are important in respiratory assessments, they are not the initial indicators of an airway obstruction. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, and adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal lung sounds that may indicate conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, but they do not specifically confirm airway patency.

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