NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. When a 17-year-old client arrives at the clinic suspecting a sexually transmitted infection, what information does the nurse provide concerning informed consent?
- A. She will need to sign an informed consent form.
- B. Her mother or father will need to be contacted for permission to treat her.
- C. A consent form is not needed if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection.
- D. Anyone over the age of 18 years may sign a consent form for her treatment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Informed consent is a person's agreement to allow something, such as a treatment, to be performed. A consent form is required even if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection. If the client is a minor, the minor may sign the informed consent form in specific situations, including seeking treatment for a sexually transmitted infection. In this case, the 17-year-old client is seeking examination and treatment for a sexually transmitted infection, so she will need to sign the informed consent form. Contacting her parents for permission is not required in this situation. Choice C is incorrect because a consent form is necessary regardless of the medical issue. Choice D is incorrect because the individual's age is not the determining factor; rather, it is the nature of the medical service being sought that dictates the need for informed consent.
2. A nursing assistant who has been employed in the long-term care center for 8 weeks is consistently taking extended lunch breaks. The nursing assistant's behavior has caused problems with client care during lunch hours. What is the appropriate way for the nurse to deal with this situation?
- A. Ignoring the situation
- B. Documenting the problem in the nursing assistant's personnel file
- C. Asking other staff members to cover for the nursing assistant
- D. Meeting with the nursing assistant to discuss the behavior and initiate problem-solving measures
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Taking extended lunch breaks is an unacceptable behavior, especially when it affects client care. The appropriate way for the nurse to deal with this situation is to meet with the nursing assistant to discuss the behavior and initiate problem-solving measures. This direct approach allows for open communication and the opportunity to address the issue effectively. Ignoring the situation (Choice A), asking other staff members to cover (Choice C), or documenting the problem in the nursing assistant's personnel file (Choice B) are not effective solutions. Ignoring the behavior does not address the issue, asking others to cover may not solve the problem at its root, and documenting the problem should come after attempting to resolve the issue through communication and problem-solving first.
3. Which is the proper hand position for performing chest percussion?
- A. Use the side of the hands
- B. Flatten the hands
- C. Spread the fingers of both hands
- D. Cup the hands
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The proper hand position for performing chest percussion is to cup the hands. Cupping the hands helps produce a vibration that aids in loosening respiratory secretions effectively. This technique is essential for therapeutic chest physiotherapy. Using the side of the hands, flattening the hands, or spreading the fingers of both hands do not generate the necessary vibration required for chest percussion. These hand positions are not considered proper techniques in this context and may not provide the desired therapeutic effect.
4. Which of the following might be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client?
- A. Dysreflexia
- B. Risk for Injury
- C. Urinary Retention
- D. Unbalanced Nutrition
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client would be 'Risk for Injury' as the client is prone to injuries during seizure activity, such as head trauma from falls. Epilepsy does not typically cause dysreflexia. While urinary retention may occur during or after a seizure, it is not a common nursing diagnosis related to epilepsy. 'Unbalanced Nutrition' is not a priority nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client compared to the immediate risk of injury during seizures.
5. Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the agent of choice for which of the following infections?
- A. HIV
- B. AIDS
- C. candida
- D. herpes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically effective in treating herpes infections. It works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, shortening the duration of the infection. While Acyclovir can be used in HIV and AIDS patients to treat opportunistic viral infections, it is not a primary drug for managing HIV or AIDS itself. Candida is a type of fungus, and infections caused by Candida are treated with antifungal medications, not antivirals like Acyclovir. Therefore, the correct answer is herpes.
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