which of the following isoenzymes is elevated in a client who has had a myocardial infarction
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Questions Management of Care

1. Which of the following isoenzymes is elevated in a client who has had a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: CPK-MB is the correct answer as it is elevated in clients who have had a myocardial infarction. CPK-BB is elevated in clients with brain damage, and CPK-MM is elevated in clients with skeletal muscle damage. CPK-MI, mentioned in the rationale, does not exist, making it an incorrect choice.

2. A test that can correctly identify those who do not have a given disease is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'specific.' Specificity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who do not have a particular disease. In this case, when the client's lab culture report is negative for the suspected infection, a specific test would correctly identify that the client does not have the disease. 'Sensitive' (Choice B) is incorrect as sensitivity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who do have the disease. 'Negative culture' (Choice C) is incorrect as it does not describe the test's ability but rather the result itself. 'Marginal finding' (Choice D) is irrelevant to the concept being tested in this question.

3. The client asks the nurse not to tell anyone outside of the care team about his positive HIV diagnosis. What response is most appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response is C: "Because this is a communicable disease, it may need to be reported to the CDC."? It is important to uphold patient confidentiality, but in the case of certain communicable diseases like HIV, there are legal requirements for mandatory reporting to public health authorities such as the CDC. Option A is incorrect because it violates patient confidentiality and does not consider legal obligations. Option B, while respecting the client's wishes, may not align with the legal requirement for reporting certain communicable diseases. Option D is inappropriate as it dismisses the client's concerns and rights regarding their health information.

4. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

5. What does it mean to be a nursing advocate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nursing advocate does not make decisions for others but instead empowers individuals to make decisions for themselves. By encouraging individuals to make their own decisions and supporting them in this process, nursing advocates uphold the principle of self-determination. This approach respects the autonomy and independence of individuals in managing their care. Therefore, the correct answer is to 'encourage persons to make decisions for themselves and act with or on behalf of the person to support those decisions.' Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the role of a nursing advocate in promoting patient autonomy and self-determination.

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