which of the following isoenzymes is elevated in a client who has had a myocardial infarction

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Questions Management of Care

1. Which of the following isoenzymes is elevated in a client who has had a myocardial infarction?

A. CPK-BB
B. CPK-MM
C. CPK-MB
D. CPK-MI

Correct answer: C

Rationale: CPK-MB is the correct answer as it is elevated in clients who have had a myocardial infarction. CPK-BB is elevated in clients with brain damage, and CPK-MM is elevated in clients with skeletal muscle damage. CPK-MI, mentioned in the rationale, does not exist, making it an incorrect choice.

2. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

A. LDH
B. troponin
C. CPK
D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

3. During an emergency procedure, is the surgical timeout a requirement?

A. The surgical timeout should be performed by the surgical team unless it would cause a delay leading to injury or death.
B. No, the timeout is not necessary during an emergency procedure.
C. No, the surgical timeout is not required in emergency procedures.
D. Yes, the surgical timeout must be performed in all cases.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an emergency procedure, the surgical timeout should be performed unless doing so would cause a delay leading to injury or death. This is because the primary goal during an emergency is to swiftly address the critical situation. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that the timeout is not necessary, which is not accurate. Choice C is also incorrect as it suggests that the timeout is not required in emergency procedures, disregarding safety protocols. Choice D is incorrect as it wrongly states that the timeout must be performed in all cases without considering the potential risks associated with delays during emergencies.

4. Which of these types of fluid output is not typically measured?

A. chest tube drainage
B. emesis
C. evaporative water from the respiratory tract
D. urine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'urine.' Urine output is routinely measured to assess renal function and fluid balance. Choices A, B, and C are types of fluid output that are typically measured in a clinical setting. Chest tube drainage is monitored to evaluate drainage from the chest cavity, emesis refers to vomitus which can indicate gastrointestinal issues, and evaporative water from the respiratory tract is considered insensible loss and is not directly measured but estimated in overall fluid balance assessments.

5. What instruction should a client who is about to undergo pelvic ultrasonography be given by a healthcare provider?

A. "Urinate prior to the test."?
B. "Have someone drive you home."?
C. "Do not drink after midnight."?
D. "Drink plenty of water."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client about to undergo pelvic ultrasonography is to 'Drink plenty of water.' A full bladder is required to serve as a landmark to define pelvic organs during the procedure. It is important to ensure the bladder is adequately filled. 'Urinate prior to the test' (Choice A) would not be appropriate as a full bladder is needed for better visualization. 'Have someone drive you home' (Choice B) is unnecessary as no sedation is given during the procedure, so the client can drive home on their own. 'Do not drink after midnight' (Choice C) is unrelated and not necessary for a pelvic ultrasonography examination.