NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Nclex Questions Management of Care
1. Which of the following isoenzymes is elevated in a client who has had a myocardial infarction?
- A. CPK-BB
- B. CPK-MM
- C. CPK-MB
- D. CPK-MI
Correct answer: CPK-MB
Rationale: CPK-MB is the correct answer as it is elevated in clients who have had a myocardial infarction. CPK-BB is elevated in clients with brain damage, and CPK-MM is elevated in clients with skeletal muscle damage. CPK-MI, mentioned in the rationale, does not exist, making it an incorrect choice.
2. In the United States, several definitions of death are currently being used. The definition that uses apnea testing and pupillary responses to light is termed:
- A. whole brain death.
- B. heart-lung death.
- C. circulatory death.
- D. higher brain death.
Correct answer: whole brain death.
Rationale: The correct answer is 'whole brain death.' Most protocols for determining whole brain death require two separate clinical examinations, including the induction of painful stimuli, pupillary responses to light, oculovestibular testing, and apnea testing. This comprehensive approach ensures that all functions of the brain, including the brainstem, are evaluated to confirm the absence of brain function. Choices B and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the specific tests required for determining whole brain death. Choice C, 'circulatory death,' does not involve the evaluation of brain function and is not a current definition of death in the United States.
3. Which of the following NSAIDs is most commonly used for a brief period for acute pain?
- A. Advil
- B. Aleve
- C. Toradol
- D. Bextra
Correct answer: Toradol
Rationale: Toradol is the correct answer because it is an NSAID known for its effectiveness in managing acute pain for short durations. It can be administered via intramuscular (IM), intravenous (IV), or oral (PO) routes. Advil (choice A) and Aleve (choice B) are commonly used for mild to moderate pain but may not be as effective for acute pain requiring immediate relief. Bextra (choice D) was withdrawn from the market due to safety concerns, making it an inappropriate choice for acute pain management.
4. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?
- A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
- B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
- C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
- D. Morning administration mimics the body’s natural secretion of corticosteroid.
Correct answer: Morning administration mimics the body’s natural secretion of corticosteroid.
Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body’s natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s serum glucose levels. Which of the following scenarios would indicate abnormal serum glucose values for a 30-year-old male?
- A. 70 mg/dL
- B. 55 mg/dL
- C. 110 mg/dL
- D. 100 mg/dL
Correct answer: 55 mg/dL
Rationale: The correct answer is 55 mg/dL. The standard range for serum glucose levels is typically 60-115 mg/dL. A serum glucose level of 55 mg/dL falls below this range, indicating hypoglycemia. Options A, C, and D are within the standard range for serum glucose levels and would not be considered abnormal for a 30-year-old male.
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