Nursing Elites

1. A nurse enters a client's room to administer a medication that has been prescribed by the health care provider. The client asks the nurse about the medication. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. 'I know that it's for fluid buildup, and I think you've taken it before.''
• B. 'It's called furosemide (Lasix), and it will promote urination and rid your body of the excess fluid. It can cause an alteration in electrolyte levels, so we'll need to increase the potassium in your diet.''
• C. 'It's to help get rid of the swelling in your feet.''
• D. ''You need to discuss this medication with your health care provider.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client has the right to be informed of the medication name, purpose, action, and potential undesirable effects of a prescribed medication. The nurse should provide adequate information to the client. Choice B is the correct answer as it includes the medication name, its purpose (promoting urination and eliminating excess fluid), and a potential side effect (alteration in electrolyte levels) with a plan for managing it (increasing potassium in the diet). This response demonstrates thorough and complete information. Choice A provides some information but lacks details on potential side effects and dietary adjustments. Choice C is vague and does not provide specific details about the medication. Choice D deflects the client's question and does not fulfill the client's right to information.

2. What sign might the nurse observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Coma is a sign that a nurse might observe in a client with a high ammonia level. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by impaired brain function, which can progress to coma. Edema (choice B) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia (choice C) is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and is not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria (choice D) refers to excessive urination and is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

3. A nurse calls a health care provider to report that a client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is exhibiting dyspnea and worsening of wheezing. The health care provider, who is in a hurry because of a situation in the emergency department, gives the nurse a telephone prescription for furosemide (Lasix) but does not specify the route of administration. What is the appropriate action on the part of the nurse?

• A. Calling the health care provider who gave the telephone prescription to clarify the prescription
• B. Administering the medication orally and clarifying the prescription once the health care provider has finished caring for the client in the emergency department
• C. Calling the nursing supervisor for assistance in determining the route of administration
• D. Administering the medication intravenously because this route is generally used for clients with CHF

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Telephone prescriptions involve a health care provider dictating a prescribed therapy over the telephone to the nurse. The nurse must clarify the prescription by repeating it clearly and precisely to the health care provider. The nurse then writes the prescription on the health care provider's prescription sheet or enters it into the electronic medical record. It is crucial not to interpret an unclear prescription or administer a medication by a route that has not been expressly prescribed. In this case, the nurse should call the health care provider who gave the telephone prescription to clarify the prescription, ensuring the correct route of administration is specified. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because administering the medication without clarification, seeking assistance from the nursing supervisor, or choosing an arbitrary route of administration can compromise patient safety and violate medication administration protocols.

4. The laws enacted by states to provide immunity from liability to persons who provide emergency care at an accident scene are called:

• A. Good Samaritan laws.
• B. HIPAA.
• C. Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA).
• D. OBRA.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Good Samaritan laws. These laws protect individuals who provide voluntary emergency care from being held liable for any unintended injury or harm that may occur during the care. Good Samaritan laws encourage individuals to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. HIPAA, on the other hand, focuses on safeguarding patient information and privacy, ensuring confidentiality. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) pertains to a patient's rights to make decisions about their medical treatment and advance directives. OBRA, enacted in the late 1980s, aims to improve the quality of care in nursing homes and enhance residents' quality of life, focusing on nursing home reform and standards, which is not directly related to immunity for emergency care providers.

5. Which of the following is not one of the four categories related to client care plans?

• A. privacy
• B. evaluation
• C. diagnosis
• D. outcome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The four categories related to client care plans are diagnosis, intervention, outcome, and evaluation. Privacy is not typically considered a distinct category in client care plans, as it is more of a fundamental aspect that underlies all care provided to clients. Choices B, C, and D are directly related to the components of client care plans, making them incorrect answers in this context.

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