Nursing Elites

1. A twenty-one-year-old man suffered a concussion, and the MD ordered an MRI. The patient asks, 'Will they allow me to sit up during the MRI?' The correct response by the nurse should be:

• A. "I will have to talk to the doctor about letting you sit upright during the test."?
• B. "You will be positioned in the reverse Trendelenburg position to maximize the view of the brain."?
• C. "The radiologist will let you know."?
• D. "You will have to lie down on your back during the test."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the patient that they will have to lie down on their back during the MRI. This positioning is necessary for the scan to obtain accurate images of the brain. Choice A is incorrect because the decision on the positioning during the MRI is typically determined by the imaging protocol and not subject to negotiation during the test. Choice B is incorrect as the reverse Trendelenburg position is not commonly used during MRI scans. Choice C is incorrect because the radiologist does not usually make decisions on patient positioning during the MRI; it is predetermined by the imaging requirements.

2. The client with cirrhosis of the liver is receiving Lactulose. The nurse is aware that the rationale for the order for Lactulose is:

• A. To lower the blood glucose level
• B. To lower the uric acid level
• C. To lower the ammonia level
• D. To lower the creatinine level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lactulose is administered to the client with cirrhosis to lower ammonia levels, as it works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for elimination in the stool. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Lactulose does not have an effect on blood glucose, uric acid, or creatinine levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to lower the ammonia level.

3. The doctor orders 2% nitroglycerin ointment in a 1-inch dose every 12 hours. Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment includes:

• A. Rotating application sites
• B. Limiting applications to the chest
• C. Rubbing it into the skin
• D. Covering it with a thin paper dressing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment involves rotating application sites to prevent skin irritation. It should be applied to the back and upper arms, not restricted to the chest, making option B incorrect. Rubbing it into the skin, as indicated in option C, is not recommended for nitroglycerin ointment as it can lead to faster absorption and potential side effects. The correct way is to cover it with a thin paper dressing, not gauze as mentioned in option D, to ensure proper absorption and prevent the medication from evaporating too quickly.

4. A 60-year-old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping, extreme apprehension, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. "You have nothing to worry about. You are in a safe place. Try to relax."?
• B. "Has anything happened recently or in the past that might have triggered these feelings?"?
• C. "We have given you a medication that helps to decrease feelings of anxiety."?
• D. "Take some deep breaths and try to calm down."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it shows empathy, acknowledges the patient's feelings, and opens the door for discussion about potential triggers for anxiety. This approach helps the patient explore the root cause of his anxiety and provides an opportunity for therapeutic communication. Choice A dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address the underlying issue. Choices C and D do not encourage the patient to express his emotions or delve into the reasons behind his anxiety, hindering the therapeutic process.

5. Six hours after birth, the infant is found to have an area of swelling over the right parietal area that does not cross the suture line. The nurse should chart this finding as:

• A. A cephalohematoma
• B. Molding
• C. Subdural hematoma
• D. Caput succedaneum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, a cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is an area of bleeding outside the cranium but beneath the periosteum, typically not crossing the suture line. Answer B, molding, is the overlapping of the bones of the cranium and does not involve bleeding, making it an incorrect choice. Answer C, a subdural hematoma, involves intracranial bleeding and is typically diagnosed through imaging studies like a CAT scan or x-ray. Answer D, caput succedaneum, is characterized by edema that crosses the suture line, unlike the described swelling in this case.

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