Nursing Elites

1. A twenty-one-year-old man suffered a concussion, and the MD ordered an MRI. The patient asks, 'Will they allow me to sit up during the MRI?' The correct response by the nurse should be:

• A. "I will have to talk to the doctor about letting you sit upright during the test."?
• B. "You will be positioned in the reverse Trendelenburg position to maximize the view of the brain."?
• C. "The radiologist will let you know."?
• D. "You will have to lie down on your back during the test."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the patient that they will have to lie down on their back during the MRI. This positioning is necessary for the scan to obtain accurate images of the brain. Choice A is incorrect because the decision on the positioning during the MRI is typically determined by the imaging protocol and not subject to negotiation during the test. Choice B is incorrect as the reverse Trendelenburg position is not commonly used during MRI scans. Choice C is incorrect because the radiologist does not usually make decisions on patient positioning during the MRI; it is predetermined by the imaging requirements.

2. As a type of quality indicator, an example of a structure standard is:

• A. a written philosophy.
• B. a procedure for a straight catheterization.
• C. a protocol for treatment of a client with chest pain.
• D. the diagnostic work-up for a client with abdominal pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a written philosophy.' Structure standards define the conditions needed to operate a system and do not directly involve client care. Examples include philosophy, objectives, goals, hours of operation, and management responsibility. Choices B, C, and D involve specific procedures and protocols related to client care, which are not structure standards.

3. When the nurse who was not promoted first read the memo and learned that the other nurse had received the promotion, she left the room in tears. This behavior is an example of:

• A. conversion.
• B. regression
• C. introjection.
• D. rationalization

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Crying is a regressive behavior. The ego returned to an earlier, comforting, and less-mature way of behaving in the face of disappointment. Regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development to cope with stress or conflict. In this scenario, the nurse regressed to a childlike state by crying when faced with the disappointment of not getting the promotion, demonstrating regression as a defense mechanism. Conversion involves transforming anxiety into a physical symptom. Introjection involves unconsciously identifying intensely with another person. Rationalization involves unconsciously creating acceptable explanations to justify unacceptable ideas, actions, or feelings. Therefore, the correct answer is regression as it aligns with the nurse's behavior of regressing to a childlike state by crying due to the disappointment of not receiving the promotion.

4. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for removal of a pituitary tumor using the transsphenoidal approach. The nurse should be particularly alert for:

• A. Nasal congestion
• B. Abdominal tenderness
• C. Muscle tetany
• D. Oliguria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the removal of a pituitary tumor using the transsphenoidal approach, nasal congestion is a significant concern as it can further obstruct the airway. This can be due to mucosal swelling, bleeding, or edema resulting from the surgery. Nasal congestion requires immediate attention to prevent airway compromise. Abdominal tenderness, muscle tetany, and oliguria are not directly associated with the pituitary gland or the transsphenoidal approach, making them incorrect choices. Abdominal tenderness is more common in abdominal or pelvic surgeries due to intra-abdominal issues. Muscle tetany is related to electrolyte imbalances or neuromuscular disorders, not specific to pituitary surgery. Oliguria is a concern in renal-related conditions, not typically in pituitary tumor surgeries.

5. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?

• A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
• B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
• C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
• D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.

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