NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. The nurse teaching a client about hepatitis and its transmission should explain that one type of hepatitis does not produce a carrier state after its acute phase. Which type is it?
- A. hepatitis A
- B. hepatitis B
- C. hepatitis C
- D. hepatitis D
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hepatitis A. Hepatitis A does not produce a carrier state after its acute phase. It is transmitted via contaminated water or food through the oral-fecal route and is not blood-borne. Hepatitis B, choice B, can lead to a carrier state where the person remains infectious despite being asymptomatic. Hepatitis C, choice C, can also result in a chronic carrier state. Hepatitis D, choice D, is an incomplete virus that requires hepatitis B to replicate; it does not lead to a carrier state on its own.
2. Which of the following adverse effects should the client on Floxin be alerted to?
- A. stunting of height in teens and young adults
- B. propensity for anovulatory uterine bleeding
- C. intractable diarrhea
- D. tendon rupture
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is tendon rupture. Floxin is a quinolone antibiotic commonly used in respiratory infections and pelvic/reproductive infections. One of the rare adverse effects associated with quinolones is tendon sheath rupture, often affecting the Achilles tendon. Therefore, patients taking Floxin should be alerted to the possibility of tendon rupture. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically associated with Floxin use and are not common adverse effects of quinolone antibiotics. Stunting of height is not a recognized adverse effect of Floxin. Anovulatory uterine bleeding is not a known side effect of quinolones. Intractable diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Floxin.
3. Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?
- A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- B. Protease inhibitors
- C. HIV fusion inhibitors
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.
4. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client scheduled for a colonoscopy
- B. A client with a tracheostomy who is receiving humidified oxygen via a tracheostomy mask
- C. A client preparing for discharge after surgery
- D. A client requiring a tube feeding through a gastrostomy tube
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is a client with a tracheostomy who is receiving humidified oxygen via a tracheostomy mask. Airway management is always the priority in nursing care. Assessing this client first ensures that their airway is clear and oxygenation is adequate. Clients with compromised airways need immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress or failure. The other clients do not have immediate airway concerns and represent lower priorities in this scenario. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client with the tracheostomy and oxygen therapy to maintain airway patency and adequate oxygenation.
5. Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are:
- A. the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client.
- B. those tasks that can be delegated to assistive personnel.
- C. those tasks that can be performed at the end of the shift.
- D. those tasks that can be performed at any time
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are those that are not urgent but still important, such as the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client. They do not impact the client's immediate physiological status but require attention. Intermediate priorities may need the skill level of an RN for completion and may have specific time requirements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the priority being intermediate doesn't mean it can be delegated, done at a specific time, or done at any time; it simply indicates a non-urgent but necessary task for the client's well-being.
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