Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following nursing diagnoses might be appropriate as Parkinson's disease progresses and complications develop?

• A. Impaired Physical Mobility
• B. Dysreflexia
• C. Hypothermia
• D. Impaired Dentition

Correct answer: A

Rationale: As Parkinson's disease progresses and complications develop, impaired physical mobility is a relevant nursing diagnosis due to symptoms like a shuffling gait and rigidity that can impair movement. Dysreflexia is not typically associated with Parkinson's disease; it is more commonly seen in spinal cord injuries. Hypothermia is a condition of low body temperature and is not directly related to Parkinson's disease progression. Impaired Dentition involves issues with teeth and oral health, which are not specific to Parkinson's disease complications.

2. An example of a process standard on a med-surg unit is:

• A. a procedure for changing IV tubing.
• B. a policy for staffing.
• C. the job description of the CEO (chief executive officer).
• D. a procedure for checking waveforms on a client being treated with an intra-aortic balloon pump.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Process standards define the actions and behaviors required by staff to provide care on a med-surg unit. A procedure for changing IV tubing is a critical psychomotor skill necessary for safe and effective patient care in this setting. Choice B, a policy for staffing, pertains more to organizational management rather than specific care processes on the unit. Choice C, the job description of the CEO, delineates the responsibilities of the organization's top executive and is not a process standard for frontline staff. Choice D, a procedure for checking waveforms on a client with an intra-aortic balloon pump, is more specific to a cardiac care unit and not typically performed on a med-surg unit.

3. Which of the following isoenzymes is elevated in a client who has had a myocardial infarction?

• A. CPK-BB
• B. CPK-MM
• C. CPK-MB
• D. CPK-MI

Correct answer: C

Rationale: CPK-MB is the correct answer as it is elevated in clients who have had a myocardial infarction. CPK-BB is elevated in clients with brain damage, and CPK-MM is elevated in clients with skeletal muscle damage. CPK-MI, mentioned in the rationale, does not exist, making it an incorrect choice.

4. A test that can correctly identify those who do not have a given disease is:

• A. specific.
• B. sensitive.
• C. negative culture.
• D. marginal finding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'specific.' A specific test correctly identifies individuals who do not have a particular disease. In this case, since the lab culture report is negative for the suspected infection, it means the test is good at ruling out the disease. 'Sensitive' (choice B) would be incorrect as sensitivity refers to a test's ability to correctly identify individuals who do have the disease. 'Negative culture' (choice C) is incorrect as it describes the result rather than the test's characteristic. 'Marginal finding' (choice D) is unrelated to the concept of correctly identifying individuals without the disease.

5. A gastroenterologist should be consulted for clients suffering from:

• A. digestive system diseases
• B. urinary system diseases
• C. female reproductive system diseases
• D. nervous system diseases

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A gastroenterologist specializes in treating diseases and disorders of the digestive system, including the stomach, intestines, liver, and pancreas. Therefore, clients with digestive system diseases should consult a gastroenterologist. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because urinary system diseases are managed by urologists, female reproductive system diseases by gynecologists, and nervous system diseases by neurologists.

Similar Questions