NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. Which client should the nurse see first?
- A. Recurring crushing chest pain
- B. Needing an IV for surgery in 5 minutes
- C. Needing PCA morphine for pain control post-hysterectomy
- D. Waiting to get back to bed after sitting in a chair for 30 minutes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client presenting with recurring crushing chest pain should be seen first as this symptom could indicate a myocardial infarction (MI), which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. Assessing and managing potential cardiac issues take priority over other concerns like needing an IV for surgery, pain control post-hysterectomy, or assistance with mobility. While all clients require care, addressing the chest pain promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
2. A 15-year-old high school wrestler has been taking diuretics to lose weight to compete in a lower weight class. Which of the following medical tests is most likely to be given?
- A. Lab values of Potassium and Sodium
- B. Lab values of Glucose and Hemoglobin
- C. ECG
- D. CT scan
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diuretics can disrupt the sodium and potassium balance, potentially leading to cardiac complications. Monitoring the lab values of potassium and sodium is crucial to assess electrolyte imbalances due to diuretic use. Testing glucose and hemoglobin levels is not directly related to diuretic use in this context. An ECG would be indicated if there were signs or symptoms of cardiac abnormalities, but it is not the primary test to monitor the effects of diuretics. A CT scan is not typically used to assess electrolyte imbalances caused by diuretics.
3. A client who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and beginning medication therapy asks the nurse, 'How soon will I see improvement?' The nurse's best response is:
- A. "That varies from client to client."?
- B. "You should discuss that with your physician."?
- C. "You should notice a difference in a few days."?
- D. "It might take several weeks before you notice improvement."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the case of Parkinson's disease, improvement in symptoms may take several weeks of therapy to become noticeable. Therefore, the correct answer is to inform the client that it might take several weeks before they notice improvement. Choice A acknowledges individual variability but does not provide a specific timeframe, making it less reassuring. Choice B suggests deferring the question to the physician, which is not the most supportive response. Choice C is incorrect because improvement in Parkinson's disease symptoms typically does not occur within a few days.
4. A female client complains to the nurse at the health department that she has fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness. Her history reveals no significant medical problems. She states that she is always on a fad diet without any vitamin supplements. Which tests should the nurse expect the client to have first?
- A. peptic ulcer studies
- B. complete blood count, including hematocrit and hemoglobin
- C. genetic testing
- D. hemoglobin electrophoresis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to perform a complete blood count, including hematocrit and hemoglobin, as the initial tests to assess the client's symptoms related to fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness. These symptoms can be indicative of anemia, which can be caused by nutritional deficiencies due to fad dieting without vitamin supplements. Peptic ulcer studies, genetic testing, and hemoglobin electrophoresis are not the most appropriate initial tests for the client's presenting symptoms and history. Peptic ulcer studies are not relevant to the client's symptoms. Genetic testing is not indicated based on the client's presentation and history. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is used to diagnose specific types of anemia and is not the first-line test in this scenario. Further testing decisions should be based on the results of the initial tests, the client's history, and other relevant factors.
5. A 64-year-old Alzheimer's patient has exhibited excessive cognitive decline resulting in harmful behaviors. The physician orders restraints to be placed on the patient. Which of the following is the appropriate procedure?
- A. Secure the restraints to the bed rails on all extremities.
- B. Notify the physician that restraints have been placed properly.
- C. Communicate with the patient and family the need for restraints.
- D. Position the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases where restraints are considered necessary for a patient, it is crucial to communicate effectively with both the patient and their family about the reasons for this decision. This helps ensure that all parties involved understand the necessity of restraints and are informed about the potential risks and benefits. Option A, securing restraints to the bed rails on all extremities, is not appropriate as it does not involve proper communication or ethical considerations. Option B, notifying the physician that restraints have been placed properly, overlooks the importance of patient and family involvement in decision-making. Option D, positioning the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle, is unrelated to the use of restraints and does not address the situation at hand.
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