the nurse should see the client with which problem first

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX Question of The Day

1. Which client should the nurse see first?

A. Recurring crushing chest pain
B. Needing an IV for surgery in 5 minutes
C. Needing PCA morphine for pain control post-hysterectomy
D. Waiting to get back to bed after sitting in a chair for 30 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client presenting with recurring crushing chest pain should be seen first as this symptom could indicate a myocardial infarction (MI), which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. Assessing and managing potential cardiac issues take priority over other concerns like needing an IV for surgery, pain control post-hysterectomy, or assistance with mobility. While all clients require care, addressing the chest pain promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

2. Which of the following is not a primary function of the kidneys?

A. blood pressure control
B. vitamin D activation
C. erythropoietin production
D. reabsorption of waste products

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is reabsorption of waste products because the kidneys excrete waste products rather than reabsorbing them. Choices A, B, and C are indeed primary functions of the kidneys. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure, activating vitamin D, and producing erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, the primary role of the kidneys is to filter blood, remove waste products, regulate fluid balance, and maintain electrolyte balance.

3. A healthcare provider is screening patients for various vaccines. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy?

A. Diphtheria
B. Hepatitis B
C. Mumps
D. Tetanus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Mumps. The Mumps vaccine, along with the Rubella vaccine, is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of affecting the developing fetus. Diphtheria, Hepatitis B, and Tetanus vaccines are considered safe during pregnancy and are often recommended to protect both the pregnant individual and the developing fetus. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.

4. For which adverse effect of the block does the postpartum nurse monitor the woman after receiving a subarachnoid (spinal) block for a cesarean delivery?

A. Headache
B. Pruritus
C. Vomiting
D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Headache.' Postdural headache is a common adverse effect associated with a subarachnoid block due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. This headache worsens when the woman is upright and may improve when she lies flat. To manage this headache, bed rest and adequate hydration are recommended. Pruritus, vomiting, and hypertension are not typically associated with subarachnoid blocks. Pruritus, nausea, and vomiting are more commonly linked to the use of intrathecal opioids.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with an elevated cortisol level. The nurse can expect the client to exhibit symptoms of:

A. urinary excess
B. hyperpituitarism
C. urinary deficit
D. hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated cortisol levels can lead to sodium and fluid retention and potassium deficit, resulting in urinary deficit. This imbalance in electrolytes and fluid can cause a decrease in urinary output. Choices B, hyperpituitarism, and D, hyperthyroidism, are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the symptoms expected with elevated cortisol levels. Option A, urinary excess, is also incorrect as high cortisol levels typically lead to fluid retention and urinary deficit, not excess.