Nursing Elites

1. What vitamin is important in preventing peripheral neuritis in a client with alcohol abuse?

• A. Vitamin D
• B. Fat-soluble vitamins
• C. B vitamins
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fat-soluble vitamins.' Vitamin B, not Vitamin D, is crucial in preventing peripheral neuritis in individuals with alcohol abuse. Vitamin B deficiency, particularly B1 (thiamine), is commonly associated with peripheral neuritis in alcoholics. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Vitamin D is not directly related to peripheral neuritis, and potassium deficiency typically presents with different symptoms.

2. Which of the following classifications of medications is used to help decrease tremors for clients with hyperthyroidism?

• A. Steroids
• B. Anticonvulsants
• C. Beta blockers
• D. Iodine compounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Beta blockers. Beta blockers are commonly used to help decrease tremors in clients with hyperthyroidism by blocking the action of adrenaline. This helps to control symptoms such as rapid heart rate, tremors, and anxiety. Steroids (Choice A) are not typically used to treat tremors in hyperthyroidism. Anticonvulsants (Choice B) are primarily used to control seizures and are not the first-line treatment for tremors in hyperthyroidism. Iodine compounds (Choice D) are used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism by reducing the production of thyroid hormones but are not specifically indicated for tremor relief.

3. The factor that most determines drug distribution is:

• A. vascular perfusion of the tissue or organ.
• B. salt form.
• C. drug interactions.
• D. steady state.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'vascular perfusion of the tissue or organ.' Drug distribution is primarily determined by how well the circulatory system delivers the drug to various tissues and organs. Adequate perfusion ensures proper distribution of the drug throughout the body. While the salt form (choice B), drug interactions (choice C), and steady state (choice D) can influence drug efficacy and metabolism, they are not as crucial as vascular perfusion for the initial distribution of a drug.

4. A client goes to the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg, PO2 63 mmHg, HCO3 23, and oxygenation saturation (SaO2) 93%. Which of the following represents the best analysis of the etiology of these ABGs?

• A. tuberculosis (TB)
• B. pneumonia
• C. pleural effusion
• D. hypoxia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A combined low PO2 and low SaO2 indicate hypoxia. The pH, PCO2, and HCO3 are normal. ABGs are not necessarily altered in TB or pleural effusion. In pneumonia, the PO2 and PCO2 might be low due to hypoxia stimulating hyperventilation, but the given ABG values specifically point to hypoxia as the primary issue.

5. A client is 36 hours post-op a TKR surgery. 270 cc of sero-sanguinous fluid accumulates in the surgical drains. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Notify the doctor
• B. Empty the drain
• C. Do nothing
• D. Remove the drain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to notify the doctor. Significant sero-sanguinous drainage after TKR surgery could indicate a potential issue such as infection or bleeding. The physician needs to be informed promptly to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action. Emptying the drain, doing nothing, or removing the drain without consulting the physician could lead to complications going unnoticed or untreated. It is crucial to involve the physician in decision-making to ensure the best outcomes for the client.

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