Nursing Elites

1. The emergency department charge nurse is reviewing the clients triaged in the last 30 minutes. The nurse is required to obtain a social service consult from which of the following clients?

• A. A 6-year-old who drank some diluted bleach.
• B. A 10-year-old who suffered burns in a house fire.
• C. A 12-year-old who fractured his arm in a fight at school.
• D. A 12-month-old without any oral intake for the last 12 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For children under 7 years, most states have laws that mandate reporting certain situations to social services or child protection, such as ingestions of toxic substances, fractures, suspected neglect, or abuse, and burns. In this scenario, the 6-year-old who drank diluted bleach falls under the category that requires a social service consult. The other choices involve injuries or conditions that may warrant medical attention but do not necessarily mandate a social service consult based on age-related legal requirements.

2. Which action by a graduate nurse would require the charge nurse to intervene?

• A. Walking in the hallway outside the operating room without a hair covering
• B. Putting on a surgical mask, gown, and cap before entering the operating room
• C. Wearing a surgical mask into the holding area
• D. Wearing scrubs from home into the nursing station

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is walking in the hallway outside the operating room without a hair covering. In healthcare settings, it is crucial to adhere to infection control measures, which include wearing appropriate attire to prevent the spread of pathogens. Walking in the hallway outside the operating room without a hair covering violates these infection control protocols, necessitating immediate intervention by the charge nurse. Choices B and C are incorrect because putting on surgical attire before entering the operating room and wearing a surgical mask into the holding area are both standard practices that promote patient safety and infection control. Choice D is also incorrect as wearing scrubs from home into the nursing station, while not ideal, is not a violation that warrants immediate intervention compared to breaching infection control protocols near sensitive areas like the operating room.

3. A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet count falls to 98,000. Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?

• A. Test all excreta for occult blood.
• B. Use a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene.
• C. Implement reverse isolation.
• D. Avoid IM injections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to implement reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a protective measure used to protect patients from infections, not to affect the risk of hemorrhage. Testing all excreta for occult blood (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of internal bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene (Choice B) is recommended to prevent gum bleeding. Avoiding IM injections (Choice D) is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with a low platelet count. Therefore, among the given options, implementing reverse isolation is the least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage.

4. Which of the following is not a primary function of the kidneys?

• A. blood pressure control
• B. vitamin D activation
• C. erythropoietin production
• D. reabsorption of waste products

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is reabsorption of waste products because the kidneys excrete waste products rather than reabsorbing them. Choices A, B, and C are indeed primary functions of the kidneys. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure, activating vitamin D, and producing erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, the primary role of the kidneys is to filter blood, remove waste products, regulate fluid balance, and maintain electrolyte balance.

5. Which of the following lab values would indicate symptomatic AIDS in the medical chart? (T4 cell count per deciliter)

• A. Greater than 1000 cells per deciliter
• B. Less than 500 cells per deciliter
• C. Greater than 2000 cells per deciliter
• D. Less than 200 cells per deciliter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A T4 cell count of less than 200 cells per deciliter indicates symptomatic AIDS. This severe depletion of T4 cells signifies advanced HIV infection and a significantly compromised immune system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because T4 cell counts above 2000, above 1000, or below 500 cells per deciliter, respectively, are not indicative of symptomatic AIDS.

Similar Questions