NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The emergency department charge nurse is reviewing the clients triaged in the last 30 minutes. The nurse is required to obtain a social service consult from which of the following clients?
- A. A 6-year-old who drank some diluted bleach.
- B. A 10-year-old who suffered burns in a house fire.
- C. A 12-year-old who fractured his arm in a fight at school.
- D. A 12-month-old without any oral intake for the last 12 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For children under 7 years, most states have laws that mandate reporting certain situations to social services or child protection, such as ingestions of toxic substances, fractures, suspected neglect, or abuse, and burns. In this scenario, the 6-year-old who drank diluted bleach falls under the category that requires a social service consult. The other choices involve injuries or conditions that may warrant medical attention but do not necessarily mandate a social service consult based on age-related legal requirements.
2. The client is admitted to the hospital following a motor vehicle accident and has sustained a closed chest wound. Which assessment finding is consistent with a flail chest?
- A. Biot's respirations
- B. Sucking sounds during respirations
- C. Paradoxical chest wall movement
- D. Hypotension and bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct assessment finding consistent with a flail chest is paradoxical chest wall movement. This occurs when a segment of the chest wall moves in the opposite direction to the rest of the chest during respiration. Biot's respirations (Choice A) are a pattern of breathing characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnea. Sucking sounds during respirations (Choice B) may indicate air entering or leaving the chest cavity through a wound. Hypotension and bradycardia (Choice D) may be present due to other factors such as shock, but they are not specific to a flail chest.
3. A nurse assesses an 83-year-old female's venous ulcer for the second time that is located near the right medial malleolus. The wound is exhibiting purulent drainage, and the patient has limited mobility in her home. Which of the following is the best course of action?
- A. Encourage warm water soaks to the right foot.
- B. Notify the case manager of the purulent drainage.
- C. Determine the patient's pulse in the right ankle.
- D. Recommend increased activity to reduce the purulent drainage.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct course of action is to encourage warm water soaks to the right foot. This can help promote wound healing and alleviate discomfort. Before recommending increased activity or notifying additional team members, it is crucial to assess arterial blood flow by determining the patient's pulse in the right ankle. Poor arterial blood flow could worsen the condition, making increased activity inappropriate. While notifying the case manager of purulent drainage is important, addressing the wound care directly should be the primary focus at this stage.
4. A patient has suffered a left CVA and developed severe hemiparesis resulting in a loss of mobility. The nurse notices on assessment that an area over the patient's left elbow appears as non-blanchable erythema, and the skin is intact. The nurse should score the patient as having which of the following?
- A. Stage I pressure ulcer
- B. Stage II pressure ulcer
- C. Stage III pressure ulcer
- D. Stage IV pressure ulcer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Erythema with the skin intact is characteristic of a Stage I pressure ulcer. At this stage, the skin is not broken, but there is localized redness that does not blanch when pressed. Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss, Stage III pressure ulcers have full-thickness skin loss, and Stage IV pressure ulcers extend to deeper tissues, including muscle and bone. In this case, the non-blanchable erythema with intact skin aligns with the characteristics of a Stage I pressure ulcer.
5. A 14-year-old boy has been admitted to a mental health unit for observation and treatment. The boy becomes agitated and starts yelling at nursing staff members. What should the nurse's first response be?
- A. Create an atmosphere of seclusion for the boy according to procedures.
- B. Remove other patients from the area for added safety.
- C. Ask the patient, "What is making you mad?"?
- D. Ask the patient, "Why are you behaving this way? Have you thought about what may help you calm down?"?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a situation where a patient is agitated and yelling, the first response should be to create an atmosphere of seclusion for the safety of the patient and others. Seclusion is a standard procedure to help manage aggressive behaviors and prevent harm. Options B, C, and D are not appropriate in this scenario. Removing other patients may not address the immediate safety concern, asking the patient what is making them mad can escalate the situation, and questioning why the patient is behaving that way may not help in managing the current agitation. Therefore, seclusion is the recommended course of action in this scenario to ensure the safety and well-being of all involved.
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