Nursing Elites

1. The nurse should plan to evaluate the earliest onset of effectiveness of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) sublingual (SL) within what time frame?

• A. 15 seconds
• B. 3 minutes
• C. 5 minutes
• D. 15 minutes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The onset of action for Nitrostat SL is 1 to 3 minutes. Therefore, the nurse should plan to evaluate the earliest onset of effectiveness within 3 minutes after administering the medication. Option A, 15 seconds, is too short of a time frame for the onset of action of Nitrostat. Option C, 5 minutes, is slightly delayed compared to the typical onset time. Option D, 15 minutes, is too long to wait for evaluating the effectiveness of Nitrostat sublingual administration.

2. While making rounds at 3 am, the nurse discovers a small fire in a client's room. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Remove the client from the room immediately.
• B. Leave the client's room to obtain a fire extinguisher.
• C. Instruct a nurse tech to pull the fire alarm.
• D. Evacuate all clients from the unit.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a fire emergency, the priority is the safety of the individual in the room where the fire is located. Removing the client from the room immediately is the first step in the RACE acronym for fire safety: Rescue/Remove, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish. This action ensures the client's safety before addressing the fire itself. Choice B is incorrect as leaving the client's room to obtain a fire extinguisher can delay the immediate removal of the client from the danger. Choice C is incorrect as pulling the fire alarm should be done after ensuring the client's safety. Choice D is incorrect as evacuating all clients from the unit should come after ensuring the safety of the individual in immediate danger.

3. The client is preparing to learn about the effects of isoniazid (INH). Which information is essential for the client to understand?

• A. Isoniazid should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• B. Prolonged use of isoniazid may result in dark, concentrated urine.
• C. Taking aluminum hydroxide (Maalox) with isoniazid can enhance the drug's effects.
• D. Consuming alcohol daily can increase the risk of drug-induced hepatitis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: It is crucial for the client to understand that consuming alcohol while on isoniazid can increase the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Hepatic damage can lead to dark, concentrated urine. To minimize gastrointestinal upset, it is recommended to take isoniazid with meals rather than on an empty stomach. Additionally, the client should avoid taking aluminum-containing antacids like aluminum hydroxide with isoniazid, as it can reduce the drug's effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because isoniazid should not be taken on an empty stomach to help reduce GI upset. Choice B is incorrect, as prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark, concentrated urine. Choice C is incorrect as taking aluminum hydroxide with isoniazid does not enhance the drug's effects; in fact, it may decrease its effectiveness.

4. The physician wants to know if a client is tolerating their total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following laboratory tests is likely to be ordered?

• A. triglyceride level
• B. liver function tests
• C. a glucose tolerance test
• D. a complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The liver is crucial in processing nutrients and medications received through total parenteral nutrition. Liver function tests assess various enzymes produced by the liver, including prothrombin time/partial prothrombin time, serum glutamic oxaloacetic and pyruvic transaminases, gamma glutamyl transpeptidase, albumin, and alkaline phosphatase. Monitoring these enzymes can help determine if the liver is functioning properly to metabolize the nutrients from TPN. Triglyceride levels (Choice A) primarily evaluate the body's ability to clear fats, not specifically related to TPN tolerance. A glucose tolerance test (Choice C) is used to diagnose diabetes by measuring blood glucose levels after ingesting a glucose-rich solution, not directly related to TPN tolerance. A complete blood count (Choice D) assesses blood components such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but does not provide specific information about TPN tolerance.

5. After an escharotomy of the forearm, what is the priority nursing assessment for the client who has returned to your unit?

• A. Infection
• B. Incision
• C. Pain
• D. Tissue perfusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is "Tissue perfusion." After an escharotomy, the priority assessment is to ensure adequate tissue perfusion to the affected limb. Escharotomy is performed to relieve circulatory compromise by cutting through the eschar, so monitoring tissue perfusion is crucial to assess the effectiveness of the procedure and prevent complications. Assessing for infection is important but comes after ensuring adequate tissue perfusion. Checking the incision is necessary but assessing tissue perfusion takes precedence. Pain assessment is important but not the priority compared to assessing tissue perfusion to prevent ischemic complications.

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