Nursing Elites

1. A nurse reviewed the arterial blood gas reading of a 25-year-old male. The nurse should be able to conclude the patient is experiencing which of the following conditions?

• A. metabolic acidosis
• B. respiratory acidosis
• C. metabolic alkalosis
• D. respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, there is an elevated pH and low carbon dioxide levels (PaCO2 < 35 mmHg). In the given arterial blood gas reading, the patient's pH is 7.41 (within normal range), PaCO2 is 29 mmHg (below normal range), indicating respiratory alkalosis. The bicarbonate level is normal (25 mEq/l), ruling out metabolic acidosis or alkalosis. The low PaO2 (54 mmHg) may indicate hypoxemia, but it is not directly related to the acid-base disorder being assessed. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is characterized by low pH and low bicarbonate levels, which are not present in this case. Respiratory acidosis (choice B) is indicated by low pH and high PaCO2 levels, which also do not match the provided data. Metabolic alkalosis (choice C) is defined by high pH and high bicarbonate levels, which are not seen in this scenario.

2. The client has just returned from electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) and is very drowsy. What is the position of choice until the client regains full consciousness?

• A. Supine
• B. Fowlers
• C. Lateral
• D. High Fowlers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lateral.' When a client is very drowsy or sedated, placing them in the lateral position is important to maintain an open airway and allow for drainage of secretions. This position helps prevent airway obstruction and aspiration. Choice A, 'Supine,' is lying flat on the back and may not be ideal for a drowsy client due to the risk of airway compromise. Choice B, 'Fowlers,' is a semi-sitting position that is beneficial for clients with respiratory distress, but it may not be the best choice for a very drowsy individual. Choice D, 'High Fowlers,' is a more upright sitting position, which again may not be suitable for a drowsy client as it does not facilitate airway patency as effectively as the lateral position.

3. A nurse is assessing an 18-year-old female who has recently suffered a TBI. The nurse notes a slower pulse and impaired respiration. The nurse should report these findings immediately to the physician due to the possibility the patient is experiencing which of the following conditions?

• A. Increased intracranial pressure
• B. Increased function of cranial nerve X
• C. Sympathetic response to activity
• D. Meningitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should report the slower pulse and impaired respiration to the physician immediately as they are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) following a traumatic brain injury (TBI). These signs suggest that there may be a rise in pressure within the skull, which can be a life-threatening condition requiring urgent intervention. Options B and C are unlikely in this scenario as they do not correlate with the symptoms presented. Meningitis (Option D) typically presents with different signs and symptoms, such as fever, headache, and neck stiffness, which are not described in the patient's case.

4. Paula is a 32-year-old woman seeking evaluation and treatment for major depressive symptoms. A major nursing priority during the assessment process includes which of the following?

• A. meaning of current stressors
• B. possibility of self-harm
• C. motivation to participate in treatment
• D. presence of alcohol or other drug use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to consider the possibility of self-harm during the assessment process. This is crucial because unless the client is first assessed for self-harm or suicide potential, the necessary degree of vigilance in the client's environment may not be observed. While understanding the meaning of current stressors is important for treatment planning, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence. Motivation to participate in treatment and the presence of alcohol or other drug use are also important aspects to assess but ensuring the client's safety is the top priority in this scenario.

5. Why must the nurse be careful not to cut through or disrupt any tears, holes, bloodstains, or dirt present on the clothing of a client who has experienced trauma?

• A. The clothing is the property of another and must be treated with care.
• B. Such care facilitates repair and salvage of the clothing.
• C. The clothing of a trauma victim is potential evidence with legal implications.
• D. Such care decreases trauma to the family members receiving the clothing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Trauma in any client, living or dead, has potential legal and/or forensic implications. Clothing, patterns of stains, and debris are sources of potential evidence and must be preserved. Nurses must be aware of state and local regulations that require mandatory reporting of cases of suspected child and elder abuse, accidental death, and suicide. Each Emergency Department has written policies and procedures to assist nurses and other health care providers in making appropriate reports. Physical evidence is real, tangible, or latent matter that can be visualized, measured, or analyzed. Emergency Department nurses can be called on to collect evidence. Health care facilities have policies governing the collection of forensic evidence. The chain of evidence custody must be followed to ensure the integrity and credibility of the evidence. The chain of evidence custody is the pathway that evidence follows from the time it is collected until it has served its purpose in the legal investigation of an incident. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the crucial aspect of preserving potential evidence with legal implications that may be present on the clothing of a trauma victim.

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