NCLEX-PN
Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023
1. A nurse reviewed the arterial blood gas reading of a 25-year-old male. The nurse should be able to conclude the patient is experiencing which of the following conditions?
- A. metabolic acidosis
- B. respiratory acidosis
- C. metabolic alkalosis
- D. respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, there is an elevated pH and low carbon dioxide levels (PaCO2 < 35 mmHg). In the given arterial blood gas reading, the patient's pH is 7.41 (within normal range), PaCO2 is 29 mmHg (below normal range), indicating respiratory alkalosis. The bicarbonate level is normal (25 mEq/l), ruling out metabolic acidosis or alkalosis. The low PaO2 (54 mmHg) may indicate hypoxemia, but it is not directly related to the acid-base disorder being assessed. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is characterized by low pH and low bicarbonate levels, which are not present in this case. Respiratory acidosis (choice B) is indicated by low pH and high PaCO2 levels, which also do not match the provided data. Metabolic alkalosis (choice C) is defined by high pH and high bicarbonate levels, which are not seen in this scenario.
2. What advice should be given to a client with stress incontinence?
- A. to consider trying Kegel exercises
- B. to undergo surgery immediately
- C. to avoid all forms of treatment
- D. to ignore the issue as it is not serious
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For stress incontinence, advising the client to consider trying Kegel exercises is appropriate. Kegel exercises involve tightening and releasing the pelvic floor muscles, which can improve stress incontinence by strengthening the muscles that control urination. Choice B suggesting immediate surgery is incorrect as surgery is usually considered after conservative treatments like Kegel exercises have been tried. Choice C advising to avoid all forms of treatment is dangerous and neglectful. Choice D recommending to ignore the issue is inappropriate as it can impact the client's quality of life and may worsen over time without intervention.
3. A client was involved in a motor vehicle accident in which the seat belt was not worn. The client is exhibiting crepitus, decreased breath sounds on the left, complains of shortness of breath, and has a respiratory rate of 34/min. Which of the following assessment findings should concern the nurse the most?
- A. temperature of 102�F and a productive cough
- B. arterial blood gases (ABGs) with a PaO2 of 92 mmHg and PaCO2 of 40 mmHg
- C. trachea deviating to the right
- D. barrel-chested appearance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'trachea deviating to the right.' A mediastinal shift is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is a dangerous complication seen in trauma patients with symptoms like crepitus, decreased breath sounds, shortness of breath, and tachypnea. Assessing for acute traumatic injuries is crucial in this context. Choice A, a temperature of 102�F and a productive cough, is common in pneumonia cases and not as concerning as a mediastinal shift. Choice B, ABGs with a PaO2 of 92 mmHg and PaCO2 of 40 mmHg, shows values within normal limits and does not suggest a tension pneumothorax. Choice D, a barrel-chested appearance, is typical of COPD and not directly related to the acute traumatic injury described. A tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency where air cannot escape the pleural cavity, leading to lung collapse and a mediastinal shift to the unaffected side with a downward displacement of the diaphragm.
4. When treating anemia in clients with renal failure, erythropoietin should be given in conjunction with:
- A. iron, folic acid, and B12.
- B. an increase in protein in the diet.
- C. vitamins A and C.
- D. an increase in calcium in the diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Erythropoietin is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with renal failure. To effectively increase red blood cell production, adequate levels of iron, folic acid, and B12 are necessary. These nutrients play crucial roles in erythropoiesis. Choices B, an increase in protein in the diet, is not directly related to enhanced erythropoiesis and can potentially worsen uremia. Choices C and D, vitamins A and C, and an increase in calcium in the diet, are not directly involved in red blood cell production and are not essential in this context.
5. A client receives a cervical intracavity radium implant as part of her therapy. A common side effect of a cervical implant is:
- A. creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.
- B. stomatitis.
- C. constipation.
- D. xerostomia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.' This side effect persists for 1 to 2 months after the removal of a cervical implant. Diarrhea, not constipation, is usually a side effect of cervical implants. Stomatitis and xerostomia are local side effects of radiation to the mouth, not associated with cervical implants. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.
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