Nursing Elites

1. During the admission assessment for a client undergoing breast augmentation, which information should the nurse prioritize reporting to the surgeon before surgery?

• A. The client is concerned about who will care for her two children while she recovers.
• B. The client has a history of postoperative dehiscence after a previous C-section.
• C. The client's statement that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks prior.
• D. The client's concerns over pain control postoperatively.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to report to the surgeon before surgery is the client's statement that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks prior. This information is crucial as the client may be pregnant, and a pregnancy test will need to be completed before administering any anesthetic agents. Reporting this detail ensures patient safety and prevents potential risks associated with anesthesia. Choices A, B, and D are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over the need to rule out pregnancy before surgery.

2. What advice should be given to a client with stress incontinence?

• A. to consider trying Kegel exercises
• B. to undergo surgery immediately
• C. to avoid all forms of treatment
• D. to ignore the issue as it is not serious

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For stress incontinence, advising the client to consider trying Kegel exercises is appropriate. Kegel exercises involve tightening and releasing the pelvic floor muscles, which can improve stress incontinence by strengthening the muscles that control urination. Choice B suggesting immediate surgery is incorrect as surgery is usually considered after conservative treatments like Kegel exercises have been tried. Choice C advising to avoid all forms of treatment is dangerous and neglectful. Choice D recommending to ignore the issue is inappropriate as it can impact the client's quality of life and may worsen over time without intervention.

3. After a client with an Automated Internal Cardiac Defibrillator (AICD) is successfully defibrillated for Ventricular Fibrillation (VF), what should the nurse do next?

• A. Go to the client to assess for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output.
• B. Call the physician to inform them of the VF episode for medication adjustments.
• C. Call the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD in case of a recurrence.
• D. Document the incident on the code report form and follow up regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a client is successfully defibrillated, the immediate priority is to assess the client for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output, such as altered level of consciousness, chest pain, shortness of breath, or hypotension. This assessment is crucial to determine the effectiveness of the defibrillation and the client's current hemodynamic status. Calling the physician for medication adjustments without assessing the client first could delay essential interventions. Contacting the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD is not the initial action needed after successful defibrillation. Documenting the incident is important but should not take precedence over assessing the client's immediate condition.

4. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease arrives in the emergency department complaining of weakness and states that he vomited 'a lot of dark coffee-looking stomach contents.' The client is cool and moist to the touch. BP 90/50, HR 110, RR 20, T 98. Of the following physician orders, which will the nurse perform first?

• A. Initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula.
• B. Start an IV of NS at 150 ml/hr
• C. Insert NG tube to low suction
• D. Attach the client to the ECG monitor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula. The client is presenting signs of shock with hypotension, tachycardia, and cool, moist skin, which indicate poor tissue perfusion. Oxygen should be administered first to improve tissue oxygenation. While all interventions are important, oxygenation takes priority in the ABCs of emergency care. Starting an IV of NS, inserting an NG tube, and attaching the client to the ECG monitor are necessary interventions but should follow the priority of oxygen administration in this scenario.

5. A 21-year-old college student has just learned that she contracted genital herpes from her sexual partner. After completing the initial history and assessment, the nurse has data concerning areas pertinent to the disease. The data is likely to include all but which of the following?

• A. voiding patterns
• B. characteristics of lesions
• C. vaginal discharge
• D. prior history of varicella

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'prior history of varicella.' When assessing a client with genital herpes, it is important to gather data on voiding patterns, characteristics of lesions, and vaginal discharge as these are pertinent to the disease. However, the prior history of varicella is not directly related to the current diagnosis of genital herpes. Varicella, which refers to chickenpox, is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, a different virus from the herpes simplex virus causing genital herpes.

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