NCLEX-PN
Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet
1. In an obstetrical emergency, which of the following actions should the nurse perform first after the baby delivers?
- A. Place extra padding under the mother to absorb blood from the delivery.
- B. Cut the umbilical cord using sterile scissors.
- C. Suction the baby's mouth and nose.
- D. Wrap the baby in a clean blanket to preserve warmth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In an obstetrical emergency, the immediate action the nurse should take after the baby delivers is to suction the baby's mouth and nose to ensure the infant can breathe properly. This helps clear any potential obstructions and establish a clear airway. Cutting the umbilical cord (Choice B) and wrapping the baby in a clean blanket (Choice D) are important steps but should come after ensuring the baby's airway is clear. Placing extra padding under the mother (Choice A) is not a priority in this emergency situation as the focus should be on the baby's immediate needs for breathing and airway clearance.
2. A client admitted to the hospital has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order in his medical record. The nurse understands which information about DNR orders?
- A. The only individuals who may change the DNR order are healthcare providers
- B. The DNR order can be changed if the client's condition warrants it
- C. The DNR order does not remain fixed for the duration of the client's hospitalization
- D. The DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that the DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. If the client's condition changes, the DNR order may need to be changed. For this reason, DNR orders require frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. A DNR order may be changed at any time and does not remain in effect for the duration of the client's hospitalization. The client's request regarding DNR status is the priority. Choice A is incorrect because healthcare providers, not just immediate family members, may change the DNR order based on the client's condition. Choice B is incorrect as DNR orders can be changed if the client's condition warrants it, not remaining unchanged. Choice C is incorrect as DNR orders are not fixed for the duration of hospitalization, they can be modified based on the client's needs.
3. A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?
- A. The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.
- B. The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.
- C. The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.
- D. The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, characterized by maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage, typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Antibiotic therapy is usually indicated for impetigo. Chickenpox, a highly contagious disease, presents with a history of high fever followed by a vesicular rash, different from the described maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage. Choice A is incorrect as the presentation is not consistent with chickenpox. Choice B is incorrect because impetigo is contagious, especially through direct contact. Choice D is also incorrect as impetigo is a contagious skin infection regardless of others having open wounds or lesions.
4. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?
- A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
- B. There is no known cure for the disease.
- C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
- D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.
5. Which of the following enzymes is indicative of pancreatitis?
- A. alkaline phosphatase
- B. acid phosphatase
- C. creatine phosphokinase
- D. amylase
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Amylase is elevated in conditions of pancreatic inflammation, such as pancreatitis. Pancreatitis is characterized by the inflammation of the pancreas, leading to the leakage of amylase into the bloodstream. Elevated levels of amylase are a key diagnostic marker for pancreatitis. Alkaline phosphatase is associated with liver and bone conditions, not pancreatitis. Acid phosphatase is more related to prostate health and is not specific to pancreatitis. Creatine phosphokinase is found in tissues like muscle and brain, and elevated levels are seen in conditions like muscle injury or heart attack, not pancreatitis.
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