NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. All of the following tasks could be delegated to a nursing assistant or unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) except:
- A. monitoring intravenous infusion
- B. assisting a client to the bathroom
- C. offering fluid intake every 1–2 hours
- D. monitoring/recording the amount of fluid taken
Correct answer: monitoring intravenous infusion
Rationale: Monitoring an intravenous infusion involves assessing for complications, adjusting the flow rate, and monitoring the client's response, which requires the knowledge and skills of a licensed nurse (RN or LPN). Tasks that can be delegated to nursing assistants or unlicensed assistive personnel include assisting a client to the bathroom, offering fluids, and recording fluid intake. These activities are within the scope of practice for UAPs as they do not involve the specialized knowledge and training needed for intravenous infusion monitoring.
2. The client is preparing to learn about the effects of isoniazid (INH). Which information is essential for the client to understand?
- A. Isoniazid should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
- B. Prolonged use of isoniazid may result in dark, concentrated urine.
- C. Taking aluminum hydroxide (Maalox) with isoniazid can enhance the drug's effects.
- D. Consuming alcohol daily can increase the risk of drug-induced hepatitis.
Correct answer: Consuming alcohol daily can increase the risk of drug-induced hepatitis.
Rationale: It is crucial for the client to understand that consuming alcohol while on isoniazid can increase the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Hepatic damage can lead to dark, concentrated urine. To minimize gastrointestinal upset, it is recommended to take isoniazid with meals rather than on an empty stomach. Additionally, the client should avoid taking aluminum-containing antacids like aluminum hydroxide with isoniazid, as it can reduce the drug's effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because isoniazid should not be taken on an empty stomach to help reduce GI upset. Choice B is incorrect, as prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark, concentrated urine. Choice C is incorrect as taking aluminum hydroxide with isoniazid does not enhance the drug's effects; in fact, it may decrease its effectiveness.
3. The client provides information to a pregnant client who is experiencing nausea and vomiting about measures to relieve the discomfort. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further information?
- A. ''I should eat five or six small meals a day rather than three full meals.''
- B. ''I need to be sure not to drink liquids with my meals.''
- C. ''I should keep dry crackers at my bedside and eat them before I get out of bed in the morning.''
- D. ''I need to avoid eating fried or greasy foods.''
Correct answer: ''I need to be sure not to drink liquids with my meals.''
Rationale: To alleviate nausea and vomiting, the client should avoid drinking liquids with meals. The client should keep dry crackers at her bedside, avoid fried foods, and eat smaller meals. Additionally, the client should eat dry crackers every 2 hours to prevent an empty stomach and avoid spicy foods and foods with strong odors, such as onion and cabbage. The incorrect choices are: A) Eating five or six small meals a day instead of three full meals is a correct recommendation. C) Keeping dry crackers at her bedside and eating them before getting out of bed in the morning is a helpful suggestion. D) Avoiding fried or greasy foods is a valid advice to alleviate nausea and vomiting.
4. A patient has experienced a severe third-degree burn to the trunk in the last 36 hours. Which phase of burn management is the patient in?
- A. Shock phase
- B. Emergent phase
- C. Healing phase
- D. Wound proliferation phase
Correct answer: A: Shock phase
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shock phase. The shock phase occurs within the first 24-48 hours of burn management. During this phase, the focus is on stabilization, fluid resuscitation, and monitoring for potential complications. Choice B, the Emergent phase, is incorrect as it refers to the initial phase of burn care immediately after the injury. Choice C, the Healing phase, occurs later in the treatment process when the wound starts to repair itself. Choice D, the Wound proliferation phase, is not a recognized phase in burn management.
5. When removing hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, what should the nurse do?
- A. Gently irrigate the eye with an irrigating solution from the inner canthus outward.
- B. Grasp the lens with a gentle pinching motion.
- C. Don sterile gloves before attempting the procedure.
- D. Ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens.
Correct answer: Ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens.
Rationale: When removing hard contact lenses, it is crucial to ensure that the lens is correctly positioned on the cornea before removal. Directly grasping the lens can potentially scratch the cornea, so it is essential to gently manipulate the lids to release the lens safely. Gently irrigating the eye is unnecessary and could be harmful, especially without the client's cooperation. Wearing sterile gloves is also unnecessary for this specific procedure. Therefore, the correct approach is to ensure the proper positioning of the lens and then gently manipulate the lids to release it. Options A and C are incorrect because irrigating the eye and wearing sterile gloves are not necessary for contact lens removal. Option B is incorrect as directly grasping the lens can be harmful to the cornea.
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