Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is using Cognitive-Behavioral methods of pain control and knows that these methods can be expected to do all the following except:

• A. completely relieve all pain.
• B. provide benefit by restoring the client's sense of self-control.
• C. help the client to control symptoms.
• D. help the client actively participate in his or her care.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-Behavioral methods of pain control aim to provide benefit by restoring the client's sense of self-control, helping the client to control symptoms, and encouraging the client to actively participate in their care. However, these methods are not intended to completely relieve all pain. These interventions focus on perception and thought, aiming to influence how one interprets events and bodily sensations. Therefore, the correct answer is that they cannot completely relieve all pain, as pain relief is often a multifaceted approach that may require additional interventions beyond Cognitive-Behavioral methods. Choices B, C, and D are correct as Cognitive-Behavioral methods are designed to empower the individual in managing their pain and improving their overall well-being.

2. Quality is defined as a combination of all of the following except:

• A. conforming to standards.
• B. performing at the minimally acceptable level.
• C. meeting or exceeding customer requirements.
• D. exceeding customer expectations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Quality in any context is about meeting or exceeding customer requirements and exceeding customer expectations. It also involves conforming to standards to ensure consistency and reliability. Merely performing at the minimally acceptable level does not encompass the essence of quality, as it sets the bar at the lowest level of acceptability rather than aiming for excellence or customer satisfaction. Therefore, the correct answer is 'performing at the minimally acceptable level,' as this choice falls short in capturing the comprehensive definition of quality.

3. How is the information documented on incident reports used?

• A. to analyze risk categories
• B. to ensure compliance with regulations
• C. to identify staff's educational needs
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The information documented on incident reports is used for various purposes, including analyzing risk categories, ensuring compliance with regulations, and identifying staff's educational needs. Incident reports provide valuable data that can be utilized in risk management, quality monitoring, and improvement programs. Therefore, the correct answer is 'all of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are all correct as incident reports are used for analyzing risk categories, ensuring compliance with regulations, and identifying staff's educational needs, respectively. Thus, the most comprehensive answer is 'all of the above.'

4. When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client's body should they measure?

• A. corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to the top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When selecting the correct size of an oropharyngeal airway, the healthcare provider should measure from the corner of the client's mouth to the tragus of the ear. This measurement ensures that the airway is the appropriate length to maintain a clear air passage for exchange. Measuring from the corner of the eye to the top of the ear (Choice B) is inaccurate and not a standard measurement for selecting the size of an oropharyngeal airway. Measuring from the tip of the chin to the sternum (Choice C) is irrelevant to determining the correct size of the airway. Similarly, measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe (Choice D) is also incorrect and does not provide the necessary measurement for selecting an oropharyngeal airway size.

5. While receiving an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained of itchy skin. The nurse observed warm, flushed skin with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was promptly notified.

• A. The client is apparently allergic to cefazolin sodium, as indicated by warm, flushed skin and a rash on the arms, chest, and back.
• B. The client had an allergy to cefazolin sodium.
• C. The health care provider was notified because a rash developed while the client was receiving cefazolin sodium.
• D. During an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained that his skin was itchy. The client's skin was warm and flushed, with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was notified.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Accurate and objective documentation is essential during an incident report. Choice A makes an assumption of allergy based on subjective interpretation, which is not appropriate. Choice B states a conclusion without proper documentation. Choice C is incomplete as it fails to provide a detailed account of the observed symptoms. Choice D offers a precise description of the client's symptoms, actions taken, and notification of the healthcare provider, making it the most suitable documentation choice.

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