NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:
- A. Primary prevention.
- B. Secondary prevention.
- C. Tertiary prevention.
- D. Disability prevention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.
2. When evaluating the lab work of a client in hepatic coma, which of the following lab tests is most important?
- A. blood urea nitrogen
- B. serum calcium
- C. serum ammonia
- D. serum creatinine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client is in hepatic coma due to liver failure, the liver cannot metabolize amino acids completely, leading to elevated ammonia levels. Increased ammonia can cause brain-tissue irritation, worsening the coma. Therefore, monitoring serum ammonia levels is crucial in assessing the severity of hepatic coma. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of hepatic coma. Blood urea nitrogen primarily assesses kidney function, serum calcium levels are not directly related to hepatic coma, and serum creatinine is more indicative of kidney function rather than liver function in this scenario.
3. A nurse discusses staff empowerment with the nursing team. The nurse explains that staff empowerment has which function?
- A. Fosters the growth of others so that they are less dependent on the leader
- B. Means that the staff has the power to reprimand and punish any individual who is not meeting the standards of care delivery
- C. Indicates that the nurse leader will make decisions regarding the nursing unit and expects that the staff will comply with the changes
- D. Allows the staff to make every decision regarding employee scheduling
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Staff empowerment fosters the growth of others and facilitates their development so that they are less dependent on their leader. This empowerment is about enhancing skills and autonomy, not about reprimanding or punishing others (Choice B). Empowerment involves shared decision-making and autonomy, not unilateral decision-making by the leader (Choice C). Moreover, staff empowerment does not mean that staff should make every decision regarding operational aspects like employee scheduling (Choice D). It is primarily focused on developing individuals' capabilities and fostering independence within the team.
4. A nurse is assisting with data collection of a client who has sustained circumferential burns of both legs. What should the nurse examine first?
- A. Heart rate
- B. Peripheral pulses
- C. Blood pressure (BP)
- D. Radial pulse rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority assessment for a client with circumferential burns to the legs is to examine peripheral pulses. This is essential to ensure adequate circulation to the extremities. Circumferential burns can lead to compartment syndrome, causing decreased circulation to the affected limbs. Checking peripheral pulses is crucial to monitor for any signs of compromised circulation. While heart rate and blood pressure are important assessments in general, in the context of circumferential burns, the immediate concern is the risk of impaired circulation to the extremities. Therefore, assessing peripheral pulses takes precedence in this situation.
5. A client who had a stroke has left-side weakness and is having difficulty holding utensils while eating. To which of these services does the nurse suggest a referral?
- A. Physical therapy
- B. Occupational therapy
- C. Home care
- D. Social services
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An occupational therapist assists clients with impairments in performing activities of daily living, such as feeding themselves with the use of adaptive devices. In this case, the client needs help with holding utensils while eating, falling under the scope of occupational therapy. Home care provides general support services but doesn't specifically address the client's need for utensil use. Social services focus on counseling and financial aspects of care, not physical rehabilitation like occupational therapy does. Physical therapy primarily deals with physical disabilities through exercises, which is not the primary concern for the client's difficulty in holding utensils.
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