Nursing Elites

1. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

2. What does carrying a donor card for organ donation mean?

• A. medical care is altered to obtain organs for donation in the event of serious injuries
• B. the family or legally responsible party of a client has no decision-making authority in the event that the client is considered for organ donation
• C. a client is allowed to revoke their decision for organ donation at any time
• D. a client is considered an organ donor for multiple organs or tissues

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Carrying a donor card for organ donation signifies that an individual can decide to revoke their decision for organ donation at any point. This choice empowers the individual to change their mind regarding organ donation. The family or legally responsible party of a client still holds decision-making authority in the event that the client is considered for organ donation. When organ donation is being considered, all organs or tissues the donor wishes to donate are evaluated for donation suitability; it's not limited to just one organ or tissue. It's important to note that medical care for an individual is not altered to hasten the declaration of death for organ donation purposes; the focus is on providing immediate care and resuscitation to the individual.

3. When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of morphine sulfate, what should the nurse check first?

• A. Temperature
• B. Respiratory status
• C. Pulse
• D. Urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving morphine sulfate via continuous intravenous infusion, the nurse's priority should be checking the client's respiratory status first. Morphine sulfate can lead to respiratory depression, emphasizing the need for close monitoring of breathing. While temperature, pulse, and urine output are all essential components of the assessment, ensuring adequate respiratory function takes precedence due to the potential risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine sulfate. Promptly assessing respiratory status enables early identification of any signs of respiratory distress or depression, allowing for immediate intervention if needed.

4. The nurse and a colleague are on the elevator after their shift, and they hear a group of healthcare providers discussing a recent client scenario. Which client right might be breached?

• A. right to refuse treatment
• B. right to continuity of care
• C. right to confidentiality
• D. right to reasonable responses to requests

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The right to confidentiality of client information might be breached when client care situations are discussed in public areas or without regard to maintaining the information as private and confidential. In this scenario, the conversation on the elevator could lead to a breach of the client's right to confidentiality. The other options, such as the right to refuse treatment, right to continuity of care, and right to reasonable responses to requests, are not being breached in this instance, making them incorrect choices.

5. How many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small, wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher?

• A. 1 foot
• B. 2 feet
• C. 4 feet
• D. 6 feet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should stand about 6 feet from the source of the fire. Getting closer might put the nurse in danger. Choice A, 1 foot, is incorrect because it is too close to the fire and can expose the nurse to unnecessary risk. Choice B, 2 feet, is also too close to the fire and may lead to potential harm. Similarly, choice C, 4 feet, is not the ideal distance as it is still within the range of potential danger. The correct answer is D, 6 feet, which is a safe distance for the nurse to extinguish the fire effectively without risking personal safety.

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