Nursing Elites

1. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

2. The LPN is receiving the report on a comatose client at the start of the shift at 1500. What statement should be of most concern?

• A. The client was repositioned on his right side at 1100.
• B. The client was bathed, and the skin was assessed head-to-toe at 0900 with no abnormal findings.
• C. The client's PEG tube was changed 6 months ago.
• D. The client's indwelling urinary catheter was last changed 5 days ago.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a comatose client, it is crucial to monitor and maintain the integrity of the indwelling urinary catheter to prevent urinary tract infections and other complications. Changing the urinary catheter less frequently than recommended increases the risk of infection. In this scenario, the most concerning issue is the prolonged duration since the last change of the indwelling urinary catheter, which poses an immediate risk to the client's health. While repositioning every 2 hours is essential to prevent skin breakdown, the most critical aspect in this case is the catheter care. Bathing and skin assessment are important for overall hygiene and skin integrity but are not as urgent as catheter care. The timing of the PEG tube change, while relevant for care planning, is not as immediate a concern as the indwelling urinary catheter status.

3. What sign might the nurse observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Coma is a sign that a nurse might observe in a client with a high ammonia level. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by impaired brain function, which can progress to coma. Edema (choice B) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia (choice C) is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and is not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria (choice D) refers to excessive urination and is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

4. When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that:

• A. Pregnancy tests are not reliable while taking the drug.
• B. She must use a reliable form of birth control.
• C. She should not take the Category X drug on days she has intercourse.
• D. She must follow up with an endocrinologist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a drug is categorized as Category X, it signifies that there are significant risks of fetal abnormalities if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, women of child-bearing age/capacity should use reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while on the medication. This ensures that the client avoids the potential harm to the fetus. Option A is incorrect because pregnancy tests are not unreliable due to the drug, but rather the risk is related to potential harm to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as avoiding the drug only on days of intercourse does not provide sufficient protection against pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as the need for an endocrinologist is not directly related to the use of Category X drugs.

5. Which of the following neurological disorders is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs?

• A. epilepsy
• B. Parkinson's
• C. multiple sclerosis
• D. Huntington's chorea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Huntington's chorea is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs, known as chorea. This disorder is caused by a genetic mutation affecting specific brain cells. Epilepsy presents with seizures, Parkinson's with tremors and rigidity, and multiple sclerosis with central nervous system issues. The specific description of writhing and twisting movements aligns with Huntington's chorea, making it the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they describe different neurological disorders with distinct symptoms that do not match the writhing, twisting movements characteristic of Huntington's chorea.

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