Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following clients would be most appropriate for an LPN to assign to a nursing assistant?

• A. an 18-year-old client with a femur fracture who is just returning to the floor from the recovery unit
• B. an 84-year-old client 2 days post-op after knee replacement surgery who needs help ambulating
• C. a 35-year-old client who is suffering from an acute asthma attack
• D. a 20-year-old client with Cystic Fibrosis who needs an early morning sputum sample collection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Collecting sputum samples on stable clients is within the scope of practice for an LPN. This task does not require immediate intervention or assessment by an RN or medical provider. An RN should perform the initial assessment on any client immediately post-op as it requires a higher level of assessment and monitoring. A client suffering from an acute asthma attack should be attended to by an RN or medical provider due to the potential severity and need for prompt intervention. Assigning a medically stable client who needs help ambulating to a nursing assistant is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice and allows the LPN to focus on tasks that require their expertise.

2. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

• A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
• B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
• D. two protease inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.

3. A nurse is performing suctioning through an adult client's tracheostomy tube. The nurse notes that the client's oxygen saturation is 89% and terminates the procedure. Which action would the nurse take next?

• A. Rechecking the pulse oximetry reading
• B. Calling the respiratory therapist
• C. Calling the healthcare provider
• D. Oxygenating the client with 100% oxygen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's heart rate and pulse oximetry during suctioning to assess the client's tolerance of the procedure. Oxygen desaturation to below 90% indicates hypoxemia. If hypoxia occurs during suctioning, the nurse must terminate the procedure and oxygenate the client with 100% oxygen to address the hypoxemia promptly and ensure the client's safety. Rechecking the pulse oximetry reading is important, but the priority is to address the hypoxemia by providing oxygen. Contacting the healthcare provider or respiratory therapist is not necessary at this time as the nurse can manage the hypoxemia with oxygenation. Oxygenating the client with 100% oxygen is the immediate action required in this situation.

4. A nurse is reviewing the notes written by a nurse on a previous shift. Which note in the client's record reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation?

• A. The client's wound is healing well.
• B. The client seems anxious.
• C. The client's intake was 360 mL
• D. The client is voiding large amounts

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quality documentation and reporting require information to be factual, accurate, complete, current, and organized. Choice C, 'The client's intake was 360 mL,' reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation as it provides a specific and measurable observation. This note meets the criteria for quality documentation by being specific and quantifiable. Choices A, B, and D lack specificity and quantifiability. Choice A includes a subjective term 'well,' choice B uses 'seems' indicating uncertainty, and choice D uses a vague term 'large' without quantifying the amount.

5. The nurse teaching a client about hepatitis and its transmission should explain that one type of hepatitis does not produce a carrier state after its acute phase. Which type is it?

• A. hepatitis A
• B. hepatitis B
• C. hepatitis C
• D. hepatitis D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hepatitis A. Hepatitis A does not produce a carrier state after its acute phase. It is transmitted via contaminated water or food through the oral-fecal route and is not blood-borne. Hepatitis B, choice B, can lead to a carrier state where the person remains infectious despite being asymptomatic. Hepatitis C, choice C, can also result in a chronic carrier state. Hepatitis D, choice D, is an incomplete virus that requires hepatitis B to replicate; it does not lead to a carrier state on its own.

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