a client with dysphagia is ready to eat lunch which of these foods on the tray would be best to start with when assisting the client
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Safe and Effective Care Environment Nclex PN Questions

1. A client with dysphagia is ready to eat lunch. Which of these foods on the tray would be best to start with when assisting the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct choice is apple juice with a liquid thickener. A client with dysphagia is at risk for aspiration, so it is crucial to start with liquids and assess the client's ability to swallow before introducing solid foods. Using a liquid thickener with apple juice allows the healthcare provider to evaluate swallowing function. Jell-O�, although it melts into a clear liquid, should be avoided initially as it may not provide a clear assessment of swallowing ability. Diced fruit and toast are solid foods that should be introduced only after the client's swallowing ability with liquids has been assessed.

2. Which of the following isoenzymes is elevated in a client who has had a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: CPK-MB is the correct answer as it is elevated in clients who have had a myocardial infarction. CPK-BB is elevated in clients with brain damage, and CPK-MM is elevated in clients with skeletal muscle damage. CPK-MI, mentioned in the rationale, does not exist, making it an incorrect choice.

3. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.

4. Which of the following is responsible for laws mandating the reporting of certain infections and diseases?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Individual state laws mandate the reporting of infectious diseases. The list of reportable diseases varies from state to state and is overseen by state health departments. While the CDC plays a significant role in disease surveillance, reporting infectious diseases is primarily governed by individual state laws. The CDC's role is to provide support, guidance, and expertise to state health departments. The National Institutes of Health (NIH) primarily focus on biomedical and health-related research, not on mandating disease reporting. Health and Human Services (HHS) is a federal department that oversees various agencies, but the responsibility for mandating disease reporting lies with individual states.

5. A client is told that his test is positive, but in fact, the client does not have the disease tested for. Which type of false report is this an example of?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'false positive.' A false-positive result occurs when a test result is labeled positive in error, when the actual result is negative. In this scenario, the client received a positive test result incorrectly, as he does not have the disease being tested for. Choice A ('positive') is too vague and does not specify that the result was incorrect. Choice C ('negative') is the opposite of what happened in the scenario. Choice D ('false negative') refers to a situation where a test result is labeled negative incorrectly, which is not the case in this scenario.

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