NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The nurse is teaching a community health class for cancer prevention and screening. Which individual has the highest risk for colon cancer?
- A. Client with irritable bowel syndrome
- B. Family history of colon polyps
- C. Client with cirrhosis of the liver
- D. History of colon surgery
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A family history of colon polyps and/or colon cancer is a significant risk factor for developing colon cancer. Individuals with a family history are more likely to develop colon cancer due to genetic predisposition. While other factors like irritable bowel syndrome, cirrhosis of the liver, and history of colon surgery may contribute to an increased risk of colon cancer, having a family history of colon polyps is the highest risk factor. Irritable bowel syndrome does not directly increase the risk of colon cancer. Cirrhosis of the liver is associated with liver cancer rather than colon cancer. A history of colon surgery may reduce the risk of colon cancer in some cases by removing precancerous polyps.
2. Which of the following terms refers to soft tissue injury caused by blunt force?
- A. contusion
- B. strain
- C. sprain
- D. dislocation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A contusion is a soft tissue injury caused by blunt force. It is an injury that does not break the skin, caused by a blow, and characterized by swelling, discoloration, and pain. The immediate application of cold might limit the development of a contusion. A strain is a muscle pull from overuse, overstretching, or excessive stress. A sprain is caused by a wrenching or twisting motion. A dislocation is a condition where the articular surfaces of the bones forming a joint are no longer in anatomical contact. Therefore, the correct answer is 'contusion' as it specifically relates to soft tissue injury caused by blunt force.
3. Jane Love, a 35-year-old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?
- A. anemia
- B. edema
- C. painless vaginal bleeding
- D. fatigue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. While anemia (choice A) may be a consequence of chronic bleeding from placenta previa, it is not a direct indicator. Edema (choice B) and fatigue (choice D) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in pregnancy but are not specific to placenta previa.
4. A pregnant Asian client who is experiencing morning sickness wants to take ginger to relieve the nausea. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. "I will call your physician to see if we can start some ginger."?
- B. "We don't use home remedies in this clinic."?
- C. "Herbs are not as effective as regular medicines."?
- D. "Just eat some dry crackers instead."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is appropriate as it demonstrates cultural sensitivity. Ginger is commonly used to alleviate nausea, particularly in Asian cultures. Contacting the physician to discuss the use of ginger ensures the client's safety and respects their preferences. Choices B and C are incorrect as they disregard the client's request and fail to acknowledge their cultural beliefs. Choice D is incorrect because it does not address the client's desire to use ginger for relief.
5. Which reported symptom would indicate a client with Addison's disease has received too much fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement?
- A. Oily skin and hair
- B. Weight gain of 6 pounds in one week
- C. Loss of muscle mass in arms and legs
- D. Increased blood glucose level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement in Addison's disease involves mimicking aldosterone to retain sodium and water. This retention can lead to weight gain due to increased fluid retention. Rapid weight gain, such as 6 pounds in one week, is a concerning sign of excessive fluid retention, indicating a potential overdose of fludrocortisone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because oily skin and hair, loss of muscle mass, and increased blood glucose levels are not specific symptoms of excessive fludrocortisone replacement in Addison's disease.
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