Nursing Elites

1. Elderly persons with pernicious anemia should be instructed:

• A. to increase their dietary intake of foods high in B12.
• B. that they do not need to return for follow-up for at least a month after initiation of treatment.
• C. that oral B12 is safer and less expensive than parenteral replacement.
• D. that diarrhea can be a transient side effect of B12 injections.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elderly persons with pernicious anemia, a condition characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor, should be informed about the potential side effects of B12 injections. Diarrhea is a known transient side effect of B12 injections, along with pain and burning at the injection site, and peripheral vascular thrombosis. Increasing dietary intake of B12-rich foods would not be sufficient due to the malabsorption issue in pernicious anemia. Follow-up is essential in managing pernicious anemia, so instructing patients they do not need to return for follow-up is incorrect. While oral B12 may be a suitable option for some cases, it is not the preferred choice for pernicious anemia where malabsorption is the primary issue.

2. The nurse is caring for a client admitted with Class III/IV Pulmonary Hypertension. The nurse explains to the client that Lanoxin is being administered to the client in order to:

• A. Manage peripheral edema
• B. Improve right ventricular function
• C. Increase pulmonary pressure
• D. Constrict the pulmonary vessels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to improve right ventricular function. Lanoxin, also known as digoxin, is a cardiac glycoside that works by slowing the heart rate and increasing myocardial contractility, especially in the ventricles. This action helps improve the efficiency of the heart's pumping function, particularly the right ventricle in conditions like pulmonary hypertension. Choice A, managing peripheral edema, is not directly related to Lanoxin's mechanism of action. Choice C, increasing pulmonary pressure, is incorrect as Lanoxin is not used to increase pressure in the pulmonary circulation. Choice D, constricting the pulmonary vessels, is incorrect as Lanoxin does not cause vasoconstriction in the pulmonary vessels but rather acts on the heart's contractility.

3. Which client should be seen first by the Emergency Department nurse?

• A. A six-year-old with a femur fracture.
• B. A two-year-old with a fever of 102 degrees F.
• C. A three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe.
• D. A two-year-old whose gastrostomy tube came out.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority in the emergency department is to assess and manage clients based on the severity of their condition. In this scenario, the three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe should be seen first because respiratory distress takes precedence over other conditions. Wheezing indicates potential airway compromise, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. The other options are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and breathing. A femur fracture, fever, or a dislodged gastrostomy tube can be addressed after ensuring the child with respiratory distress is stable.

4. A nurse has been ordered to administer Morphine to a patient. Which of the following effects is unrelated to Morphine's effects on the patient?

• A. Depressed function of the CNS
• B. Increased blood flow
• C. Decreased venous capacity
• D. Pain relief

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine is a narcotic analgesic that acts centrally to relieve pain by binding to opioid receptors in the CNS, leading to the depressed function of the CNS. Morphine also causes peripheral vasodilation, which can lead to increased blood flow. However, morphine causes venous dilation and increased venous capacity rather than decreased venous capacity. Therefore, the effect of 'Decreased venous capacity' is unrelated to Morphine's effects. Pain relief is a well-known effect of Morphine, as it acts on the CNS to alter the perception of pain.

5. When administering intravenous electrolyte solution, what precaution should the nurse take?

• A. Infuse hypertonic solutions cautiously.
• B. Mix no more than 60 mEq of potassium per liter of fluid.
• C. Prevent infiltration of calcium, which causes tissue necrosis and sloughing.
• D. Monitor the client's digitalis dosage for adjustments due to IV calcium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering intravenous electrolyte solutions, preventing the infiltration of calcium is crucial to avoid tissue necrosis and sloughing, making choice C the correct answer. Choice A is revised to 'Infuse hypertonic solutions cautiously' because hypertonic solutions should be infused cautiously to prevent adverse effects. Choice B is corrected to 'Mix no more than 60 mEq of potassium per liter of fluid' as exceeding this limit can lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is modified to 'Monitor the client's digitalis dosage for adjustments due to IV calcium' as it is essential to monitor the digitalis dosage for potential adjustments when IV calcium is administered; however, this choice is incorrect here as it inaccurately suggests adjusting the digitalis dosage due to IV calcium, which could lead to harmful effects.

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