which of the following is at highest risk for suicide which of the following is at highest risk for suicide
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX NCLEX-PN

NCLEX Question of The Day

1. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk for suicide?

Correct answer: 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure

Rationale: The correct answer is the 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure. Elderly individuals with chronic diseases, especially men, are at very high risk for suicide. The other choices, although they may be vulnerable populations, do not carry as high a risk for suicide. The 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy may actually have a lower risk as they are receiving treatment. The 28-year-old post-partum individual is experiencing a common emotional response after childbirth, which is not necessarily indicative of a high suicide risk. The 50-year-old with OCD and depression is at risk but not as high as elderly individuals with chronic illness.

2. The client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. The doctor has ordered cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Which instruction should be given to the client?

Correct answer: “Drink at least eight large glasses of water a day.”

Rationale: Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) can cause hemorrhagic cystitis, a condition characterized by inflammation of the bladder wall leading to bleeding. To prevent this complication, the client should drink at least eight glasses of water a day. Walking to prevent calcium loss (choice A) and increasing fiber intake (choice B) are not directly related to the side effects of Cytoxan, making them unnecessary instructions in this case. While nausea is a common side effect of chemotherapy, the immediate reporting of nausea to the doctor (choice C) is important but not specifically related to the use of Cytoxan in this scenario.

3. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

Correct answer: increased fibrinogen

Rationale: Effective Heparin therapy should halt the process of intravascular coagulation, leading to increased availability of fibrinogen. Heparin interferes with thrombin-induced conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Therefore, an increased fibrinogen level indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy. While increased platelet count and decreased bleeding are positive outcomes, the specific indicator for Heparin therapy response is the increase in fibrinogen level. Decreased fibrin split products would also be a positive response, but an increase in fibrinogen directly reflects the impact of Heparin therapy.

4. Several clients are admitted to the emergency room following a three-car vehicle accident. Which clients can be assigned to share a room in the emergency department during the disaster?

Correct answer: The client who is 6 months pregnant with abdominal pain and the client with facial lacerations and a broken arm

Rationale: The correct answer is to assign the client who is 6 months pregnant with abdominal pain and the client with facial lacerations and a broken arm to share a room. The pregnant client needs close monitoring due to the abdominal pain, and the client with facial lacerations and a broken arm requires immediate attention for wound care and possible fracture management. Choice A should not be assigned together as the schizophrenic client experiencing visual and auditory hallucinations needs a separate room for privacy and safety, and the client with ulcerative colitis may require isolation due to the risk of infection. Choice C is incorrect because the child with fixed and dilated pupils is likely in a critical condition and should be in a private room with parents, while the client with a frontal head injury needs a separate room for focused care. Choice D is also incorrect as the client with a large puncture wound to the abdomen needs immediate attention in a separate room, and the client with chest pain requires evaluation and monitoring in a separate setting as well.

5. When a client informs the nurse that he is experiencing hypoglycemia, the nurse provides immediate intervention by providing:

Correct answer: 2–3 teaspoons of honey

Rationale: The correct immediate intervention for hypoglycemia is to provide 10–15 grams of fast-acting simple carbohydrates orally if the client is conscious and able to swallow. This can be achieved by giving 2–3 teaspoons of honey. Honey is a quick source of simple sugars that can rapidly raise blood glucose levels. Commercially prepared glucose tablets or 4–6 ounces of fruit juice are also appropriate options. However, adding sugar to fruit juice is unnecessary as the natural fruit sugar in juice already provides enough simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels. Hard candies are not the best choice for immediate intervention in hypoglycemia as they may not provide a sufficient amount of fast-acting carbohydrates needed to raise blood sugar levels quickly.

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