NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk for suicide?
- A. 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure
- B. 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy
- C. 28-year-old post-partum crying weekly
- D. 50-year-old client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and depression
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure. Elderly individuals with chronic diseases, especially men, are at very high risk for suicide. The other choices, although they may be vulnerable populations, do not carry as high a risk for suicide. The 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy may actually have a lower risk as they are receiving treatment. The 28-year-old post-partum individual is experiencing a common emotional response after childbirth, which is not necessarily indicative of a high suicide risk. The 50-year-old with OCD and depression is at risk but not as high as elderly individuals with chronic illness.
2. Nurses should understand the chain of infection because it refers to:
- A. the linkages involved in disease transmission.
- B. the sequence required for transmission of disease.
- C. the clustering of bacteria in a specific pattern.
- D. increasing virulence patterns among microorganisms.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The chain of infection refers to the sequence required for the transmission of disease, involving steps like the pathogen's presence, movement from a reservoir, and entry into a susceptible host. Understanding this sequence helps healthcare professionals, including nurses, in implementing effective infection control measures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the concept of the chain of infection. Choice A is too broad and does not specifically address the sequential nature of disease transmission. Choice C focuses on bacterial clustering rather than the transmission process. Choice D mentions virulence patterns, which are not the primary focus of the chain of infection concept.
3. What is the best lab test to diagnose disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
- A. platelet count
- B. prothrombin time (PT)
- C. partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- D. D-dimer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best lab test to diagnose disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is the D-dimer test. In DIC, numerous small clots form throughout the body and are rapidly broken down. D-dimer measures a specific fibrin split product and is the most specific test for DIC. Platelet count (Choice A) is decreased in DIC due to consumption, but it is not specific for diagnosing DIC. Prothrombin time (PT - Choice B) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT - Choice C) are both elevated in DIC because clotting factors have been used up, but they are not specific for DIC as they can be elevated in other conditions as well.
4. If your patient is acutely psychotic, which of the following independent nursing interventions would not be appropriate?
- A. Conveying calmness through one-on-one interaction
- B. Recognizing and managing your own feelings to prevent escalation of the patient's anxiety level
- C. Encouraging client participation in group therapy
- D. Listening and identifying causes of their behavior
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is acutely psychotic, they may not be able to effectively participate in group therapy due to their altered mental state. Group settings can be overwhelming and may exacerbate the patient's symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate interventions. Choice A is correct as providing calmness through one-on-one interaction can be beneficial in establishing trust and reducing anxiety. Choice B is also important as recognizing and managing the nurse's feelings can prevent further escalation of the patient's symptoms. Choice D is relevant as listening and identifying causes of the patient's behavior can aid in understanding and providing appropriate care tailored to the patient's needs.
5. Which sexually transmitted disease, sometimes referred to as the silent STD, is more common than gonorrhea and a leading cause of PID?
- A. Genital herpes.
- B. Trichomoniasis.
- C. Syphilis.
- D. Chlamydia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Chlamydia. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often be asymptomatic, earning it the nickname 'silent STD.' It is more common than gonorrhea and is a leading cause of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID). Genital herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection, not a bacterial STD like chlamydia. Trichomoniasis (Choice B) is a parasitic infection and not commonly associated with causing PID. Syphilis (Choice C) is a bacterial infection but is not as common as chlamydia and is not a leading cause of PID.
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