metformin glucophage is administered to clients with type ii diabetes mellitus metformin is an example of

NCLEX-PN

Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023

1. Metformin (Glucophage) is administered to clients with type II diabetes mellitus. Metformin is an example of:

A. an antihyperglycemic agent.
B. a hypoglycemic agent.
C. an insulin analogue.
D. a pancreatic alpha cell stimulant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin is classified as an antihyperglycemic agent because it works by reducing hepatic glucose output and decreasing glucose absorption from the gut, thereby preventing hyperglycemia. Choice B, a hypoglycemic agent, is incorrect as hypoglycemic agents stimulate insulin production, which is not the mechanism of action of metformin. Choice C, an insulin analogue, is incorrect as metformin is not a type of insulin but a distinct medication. Choice D, a pancreatic alpha cell stimulant, is incorrect as metformin does not stimulate any pancreatic cells, but rather acts on the liver and gut to lower blood sugar levels.

2. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?

A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.

3. The chemotherapeutic agent 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) is ordered for a client as an adjunct measure to surgery. Which statement about chemotherapy is true?

A. It is a local treatment affecting only tumor cells.
B. It is a systemic treatment affecting both tumor and normal cells.
C. It has not yet been proven an effective treatment for cancer.
D. It is often the drug of choice because it causes few, if any, side effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that chemotherapy is a systemic treatment affecting both tumor and normal cells. 5-FU, as an antimetabolic drug, inhibits DNA synthesis and interferes with cell replication systemically. It affects all rapidly growing cells, including malignant and normal ones. This drug is used as adjuvant therapy for various cancers. Choice A is incorrect because chemotherapy affects both tumor and normal cells, not just tumor cells. Choice C is incorrect as chemotherapy has been proven effective in treating cancer. Choice D is incorrect because chemotherapy often causes side effects like bone marrow depression, anorexia, stomatitis, nausea, and vomiting.

4. Which type of cells secrete insulin?

A. alpha cells
B. beta cells
C. CD4 cells
D. helper cells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Beta cells are responsible for secreting insulin. Insulin is produced by beta cells in the pancreas and plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels. Alpha cells secrete glucagon, not insulin (Choice A). CD4 cells are a type of immune cell that helps coordinate the immune response (Choice C). Helper cells are a type of immune cell that aids in activating other immune cells (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is beta cells.

5. Which client should the nurse see first?

A. Recurring crushing chest pain
B. Needing an IV for surgery in 5 minutes
C. Needing PCA morphine for pain control post-hysterectomy
D. Waiting to get back to bed after sitting in a chair for 30 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client presenting with recurring crushing chest pain should be seen first as this symptom could indicate a myocardial infarction (MI), which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. Assessing and managing potential cardiac issues take priority over other concerns like needing an IV for surgery, pain control post-hysterectomy, or assistance with mobility. While all clients require care, addressing the chest pain promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being.