metformin glucophage is administered to clients with type ii diabetes mellitus metformin is an example of
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023

1. Metformin (Glucophage) is administered to clients with type II diabetes mellitus. Metformin is an example of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin is classified as an antihyperglycemic agent because it works by reducing hepatic glucose output and decreasing glucose absorption from the gut, thereby preventing hyperglycemia. Choice B, a hypoglycemic agent, is incorrect as hypoglycemic agents stimulate insulin production, which is not the mechanism of action of metformin. Choice C, an insulin analogue, is incorrect as metformin is not a type of insulin but a distinct medication. Choice D, a pancreatic alpha cell stimulant, is incorrect as metformin does not stimulate any pancreatic cells, but rather acts on the liver and gut to lower blood sugar levels.

2. How can a nurse recognize that a chronic renal failure client's AV shunt is patent?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct assessment to determine the patency of an AV shunt in a chronic renal failure client is the presence of a thrill. A thrill is a vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the shunt site, indicating good blood flow through the shunt. While the presence of a bruit is also important for assessing an AV shunt, a thrill is a more specific indicator of patency. Blood return from the shunt is related to cannulation and not necessarily an indicator of patency. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr is not directly related to the assessment of an AV shunt's patency.

3. A child with newly diagnosed leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. Which would be included in his plan of care by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to teach family and visitors handwashing techniques. Any client on chemotherapy should have good infection control measures in place, such as handwashing by all who they encounter. Placing the child in a negative pressure isolation room (Choice A) is not necessary unless specifically indicated for a certain condition. Administering prophylactic IV antibiotics (Choice B) may not be part of the standard care plan for a child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy. Avoiding high protein food intake (Choice C) is not directly related to infection control and may not be necessary unless there are specific dietary restrictions.

4. Paula is a 32-year-old woman seeking evaluation and treatment for major depressive symptoms. A major nursing priority during the assessment process includes which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to consider the possibility of self-harm during the assessment process. This is crucial because unless the client is first assessed for self-harm or suicide potential, the necessary degree of vigilance in the client's environment may not be observed. While understanding the meaning of current stressors is important for treatment planning, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence. Motivation to participate in treatment and the presence of alcohol or other drug use are also important aspects to assess but ensuring the client's safety is the top priority in this scenario.

5. A client is 36 hours post-op a TKR surgery. 270 cc of sero-sanguinous fluid accumulates in the surgical drains. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to notify the doctor. Significant sero-sanguinous drainage after TKR surgery could indicate a potential issue such as infection or bleeding. The physician needs to be informed promptly to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action. Emptying the drain, doing nothing, or removing the drain without consulting the physician could lead to complications going unnoticed or untreated. It is crucial to involve the physician in decision-making to ensure the best outcomes for the client.

Similar Questions

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