Nursing Elites

1. As part of the teaching plan for a client with type I diabetes mellitus, the nurse should include that carbohydrate needs might increase when:

• A. an infection is present.
• B. there is an emotional upset.
• C. a large meal is eaten.
• D. active exercise is performed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During active exercise, insulin sensitivity increases, leading to lower blood glucose levels. To balance the effect of increased insulin sensitivity, additional carbohydrates might be needed. The other choices are incorrect because: A) an infection typically raises blood glucose levels rather than increasing the need for carbohydrates; B) emotional upset can impact blood glucose but does not directly affect carbohydrate needs; C) while a large meal can raise blood glucose levels, it does not necessarily mean an increase in carbohydrate needs.

2. To ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort when using a rigid splint, what should be done?

• A. Place the client on a stretcher before splinting.
• B. Place the client on a long spine board before splinting.
• C. Pad the spaces between the body part and the splint.
• D. Ensure that the splint conforms to the body curves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct. When using a rigid splint, it is essential to pad the spaces between the body part and the splint to ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort. This padding helps prevent pressure points and ensures a proper fit of the splint without causing discomfort. Placing the client on a stretcher or a long spine board before splinting (choices A and B) may be necessary for transportation but does not directly relate to the proper use of a rigid splint. Ensuring that the splint conforms to the body curves (choice D) is important but not as crucial as padding the spaces to prevent discomfort and ensure proper immobilization.

3. An LPN is working on the care plan for a client with diabetes mellitus. Which of these outcomes would be the most appropriate?

• A. The client will maintain a blood glucose level within the normal range of 70-110 (per facility policy) throughout my shift.
• B. The client will maintain a blood glucose level within normal range limits today.
• C. The client will maintain a blood glucose level within the normal range of 70-110 (per facility policy) throughout my shift.
• D. The client will maintain a blood glucose level within normal limits throughout my shift.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The client will maintain a blood glucose level within the normal range of 70-110 (per facility policy) throughout my shift.' This outcome is specific, measurable, and aligns with the goal of managing diabetes mellitus. Choice A is correct because it provides a clear target range (70-110) and includes adherence to facility policy, making it precise and goal-oriented. Choice B lacks specificity on the timeframe, and Choice D is vague in defining the target blood glucose range. In nursing care plans, outcomes should be well-defined, achievable, and measurable to effectively monitor the client's progress in managing their condition.

4. When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of a nasopharyngeal airway to insert, which body part should be measured on the client?

• A. corner of the mouth to tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A nasopharyngeal airway is measured from the tip of the nose to the earlobe. This measurement ensures that the airway is of the correct length to reach the nasopharynx without being too long or too short. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the appropriate measurement for selecting the correct size of a nasopharyngeal airway. The distance from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear (Choice A) is used to measure for an oropharyngeal airway, not a nasopharyngeal airway. Similarly, the other choices (B and C) do not correlate with the correct measurement of a nasopharyngeal airway.

5. Which hormone in the urine is specifically indicative of pregnancy?

• A. estrogen
• B. progesterone
• C. testosterone
• D. human chorionic gonadotropin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin is the hormone specifically indicative of pregnancy as it is produced by the placenta after implantation. It can be detected in urine and blood samples to confirm pregnancy. Estrogen and progesterone play crucial roles in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy but are not specific indicators of pregnancy on their own. Testosterone is a hormone primarily associated with male reproductive functions and is not directly related to pregnancy, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

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