Nursing Elites

1. How far should the enema tube be inserted for a client to have a flatus-reducing enema?

• A. 4 inches.
• B. 6 inches.
• C. 2 inches.
• D. 8 inches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the enema tube 4 inches. Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter, which is typically around 4 inches in an adult. Inserting the tube only 2 inches is not far enough to reach this point. On the other hand, inserting the tube 6 or 8 inches is too far and might cause trauma to the bowel, which is unnecessary for a flatus-reducing enema. Therefore, the correct insertion depth of the enema tube is crucial to ensure effectiveness and safety in providing the intended treatment.

2. A licensed practical nurse tells the certified nursing assistant (CNA) staff that they will need to comply with the mandatory overtime policy that the long-term care facility has implemented. Later that day, the nurse overhears a CNA complaining about the policy and telling other CNAs that she will not work the overtime if she has made other plans after her regular shift. What is the best approach for the nurse to use in dealing with the conflict?

• A. Providing a positive reward system for the CNA to encourage working the mandatory overtime
• B. Ignoring the complaints
• C. Avoiding assigning the CNA mandatory overtime
• D. Meeting with the CNA regarding her behavior concerning the overtime policy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the best approach for the nurse is to meet with the CNA regarding her behavior concerning the overtime policy. Initiating a discussion is crucial to address resistance by a staff member. A face-to-face meeting allows for the verbalization of feelings, identification of problems, and the opportunity to develop strategies to solve the issue. Ignoring the complaints and avoiding assigning mandatory overtime do not tackle the root of the problem. Providing a positive reward system might offer a temporary fix but does not directly address the resistance and conflict.

3. Which of these statements from the caregiver of a palliative care client indicates a proper understanding?

• A. This treatment plan usually indicates a prognosis of less than 6 months.
• B. We will need to stay in the hospital to receive this level of care.
• C. The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.
• D. The medications to treat the underlying disease will be continued.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.' This statement reflects a proper understanding of palliative care, which focuses on improving the patient's quality of life and providing comfort. It does not necessarily mean a prognosis of less than 6 months or require hospitalization. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care can be provided regardless of the prognosis. Choice B is wrong as palliative care can be administered in various settings, not just hospitals. Choice D is inaccurate as palliative care aims to improve symptoms and quality of life, so medications may be adjusted but not necessarily stopped.

4. A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.

5. While on the wound care team, the nurse notices that a fellow nurse opens extra colloid dressings that are often thrown away when they are not needed. What should the nurse do?

• A. Do nothing, as it is not impacting client care.
• B. Discuss with the colleague the concern about wasting supplies.
• C. Tell the charge nurse to stop ordering these dressings.
• D. Remove the colloid dressings from the shelf so that the nurse will find other supplies to use.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to discuss with the colleague the concern about wasting supplies. By addressing this issue, the nurse can promote cost-effective care within the unit. While it may not directly impact client care, the wastage of supplies affects the unit's supply cost, making choice A incorrect. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes the charge nurse is solely responsible for the ordering process and overlooks the opportunity for direct communication between colleagues. Choice D is incorrect as it involves taking matters into one's own hands rather than addressing the issue through communication and collaboration.

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