Nursing Elites

1. The LPN is preparing a client for discharge, and the discharge medications include phenobarbital. Which of these client statements would indicate a need for reinforced teaching about this medication?

• A. "I will need to avoid eating excessive leafy greens."?
• B. "It's best to take this medication with food."?
• C. "I can't wait to get back to my nightly glass of wine."?
• D. "I should try to take this medication at the same time every day."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is, "I can't wait to get back to my nightly glass of wine,"? as phenobarbital should not be taken with alcohol as it is a barbiturate. Alcohol may increase the sedative effect, posing risks to the patient's safety. Choice A, "I will need to avoid eating excessive leafy greens,"? is unrelated to phenobarbital and not a cause for reinforced teaching. Choice B, "It's best to take this medication with food,"? is a general instruction and not specific to phenobarbital. Choice D, "I should try to take this medication at the same time every day,"? is a common recommendation for medication adherence but does not highlight a specific concern related to phenobarbital.

2. A nurse palpates a client’s radial pulse, noting the rate, rhythm, and force, and concludes that the client’s pulse is normal. Which notation would the nurse make in the client’s record to document the force of the client’s pulse?

• A. 4+
• B. 3+
• C. 2+
• D. 1+

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a pulse, the nurse should note the rhythm, amplitude, and symmetry of pulses and should compare peripheral pulses on the two sides for rate, rhythm, and quality. A 4-point scale may be used to assess the force (amplitude) of the pulse: 4+ for a bounding pulse, 3+ for an increased pulse, 2+ for a normal pulse, and 1+ for a weak pulse. In this case, the nurse would grade the client’s pulse as 2+ based on the description of a normal pulse. Therefore, the correct notation for the force of the client’s pulse is '2+' as it indicates a normal pulse. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent different levels of pulse force that do not align with the description given in the scenario.

3. What is the primary theory that explains a family's concept of health and illness?

• A. Health Belief Model
• B. Education-School-Completing Factor
• C. Family Health Expert Factor
• D. Disconnected Family Factor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Health Belief Model. This model explains a family's concept of health and illness by focusing on readiness factors, perceived susceptibility, and seriousness of health problems, and positive motivation for wellness. The Health Belief Model is widely used in healthcare to understand and predict health behaviors. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address how a family perceives health and illness. The Health Belief Model is the most appropriate choice as it is specifically designed to explain individual and family beliefs and behaviors related to health and illness.

4. How often should the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions be changed?

• A. every 24 hours
• B. every 36 hours
• C. every 48 hours
• D. every 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours. This frequency is necessary due to the high risk of bacterial growth associated with TPN solutions. Changing the tubing every 24 hours helps prevent contamination and bloodstream infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals increases the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the patient's system, leading to potentially severe complications.

5. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health care record notes documentation that the client has Heberden nodes of the distal interphalangeal joints. Which disorder does the healthcare professional determine that the client has?

• A. Scoliosis
• B. Osteoarthritis
• C. Rotator cuff lesions
• D. Carpal tunnel syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is characterized by hard, nontender nodules of 2 to 3 mm or larger. These osteophytes (bony overgrowths) of the distal interphalangeal joints are called Heberden nodes. In this disorder, when these nodes occur on the proximal interphalangeal joints, they are called Bouchard nodes. Heberden nodes are not associated with scoliosis, rotator cuff lesions, or carpal tunnel syndrome. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

Similar Questions