NCLEX NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN 2023 Quizlet
1. The nurse is checking laboratory values on a patient who has crackling rales in the lower lobes, 2+ pitting edema, and dyspnea with minimal exertion. Which of the following laboratory values does the nurse expect to be abnormal?
- A. Potassium.
- B. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP).
- C. C-reactive protein (CRP).
- D. Platelets.
Correct answer: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP).
Rationale: The client’s symptoms suggest heart failure. BNP is a neurohormone released from the ventricles due to increased pressure and stretch, as seen in heart failure. A BNP level greater than 51 pg/mL is often associated with mild heart failure, with higher levels indicating more severe heart failure. Potassium levels are not typically affected by heart failure. CRP is an inflammation indicator used to predict coronary artery disease risk, not directly related to heart failure in this case. The client's symptoms do not suggest bleeding or clotting abnormalities associated with platelet count issues, making platelets an unlikely abnormal value.
2. Regarding maternal and infant mortality and morbidity, a concern is that:
- A. a segment of the population is not receiving prenatal care.
- B. families may not prioritize quality health care.
- C. there might be an increase in the shortage of personnel in the maternity field.
- D. maternal-child health workers may lack adequate preparation.
Correct answer: a segment of the population is not receiving prenatal care.
Rationale: The correct answer is that a segment of the population is not receiving prenatal care. This is a significant concern as lack of access to prenatal care can lead to adverse outcomes for both the mother and the infant. Choice B is incorrect as it generalizes families as unconcerned, which may not be the case for all families. Choice C is also incorrect as there is no evidence or indication in the prompt to suggest an increase in the shortage of personnel. Choice D is not directly related to the concern mentioned in the prompt, which specifically focuses on the lack of prenatal care.
3. How far should the enema tube be inserted for a client to have a flatus-reducing enema?
- A. 4 inches.
- B. 6 inches.
- C. 2 inches.
- D. 8 inches.
Correct answer: 4 inches.
Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the enema tube 4 inches. Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter, which is typically around 4 inches in an adult. Inserting the tube only 2 inches is not far enough to reach this point. On the other hand, inserting the tube 6 or 8 inches is too far and might cause trauma to the bowel, which is unnecessary for a flatus-reducing enema. Therefore, the correct insertion depth of the enema tube is crucial to ensure effectiveness and safety in providing the intended treatment.
4. Which of the following statements by a client with spinal cord injury indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse regarding bowel management?
- A. “I should avoid eating foods that produce gas.”
- B. “I should drink more fluids like water and non-caffeinated fruit juices.”
- C. “I should set a regular schedule for bowel movements.”
- D. “I should sit in an upright position for bowel movements.”
Correct answer: “I should drink more fluids like water and non-caffeinated fruit juices.”
Rationale: The corrected statement indicates the need for further teaching because it suggests consuming fluids like fruit juices, which can include caffeinated options that may stimulate fluid loss through increased urination. It is more appropriate to emphasize the consumption of fluids like water and non-caffeinated fruit juices for proper hydration. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate a correct understanding of bowel management by focusing on dietary considerations, establishing a regular bowel movement schedule, and using proper positioning during bowel movements. Option B is incorrect as it may lead to increased fluid loss due to caffeine content in some fruit juices.
5. A nurse monitoring a client with a chest tube notes that there is no tidaling of fluid in the water seal chamber. After further assessment, the nurse suspects that the client’s lung has reexpanded and notifies the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider verifies with the use of a chest x-ray that the lung has reexpanded, then calls the nurse to ask that the chest tube be removed. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Explain the procedure to the client, then remove the chest tube.
- B. Call the nursing supervisor.
- C. Inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure.
- D. Obtain petrolatum-impregnated gauze and ask another nurse to assist in removing the chest tube.
Correct answer: Inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure.
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure. Actual removal of a chest tube is the duty of a healthcare provider. If the healthcare provider insists that the nurse remove the tube, the nurse must contact the nursing supervisor. Some agencies’ policies and procedures may permit an advanced practice nurse to remove a chest tube, but there is no information in the question to indicate that the nurse is an advanced practice nurse. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should not proceed with removing the chest tube without proper authorization. Choice B is incorrect as calling the nursing supervisor should come after clarifying with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not begin the process of removing the chest tube without proper guidance and authorization.
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