NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023
1. A client with asthma develops respiratory acidosis. Based on this diagnosis, what should the nurse expect the client's serum potassium level to be?
- A. normal
- B. elevated
- C. low
- D. unrelated to the pH
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the body retains CO2, leading to increased hydrogen ion concentration and a drop in blood pH. As pH decreases, serum potassium levels increase due to the movement of potassium out of cells to compensate for the acidosis. Elevated serum potassium levels are expected in respiratory acidosis. Choice A ('normal') is incorrect because potassium levels are expected to be elevated in respiratory acidosis. Choice C ('low') is incorrect as potassium levels rise in this condition. Choice D ('unrelated to the pH') is incorrect as serum potassium levels are directly impacted by changes in pH in respiratory acidosis.
2. The client is scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina. What is the most likely preoperative nursing diagnosis for this client?
- A. Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.
- B. Deficient knowledge (preoperative and postoperative activities) related to lack of information.
- C. Acute pain related to tissue injury and decreased circulation to the eye.
- D. Risk for infection related to the eye injury.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct preoperative nursing diagnosis for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina is 'Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.' A client facing the threat of permanent blindness due to a detached retina is likely to experience anxiety. Addressing this anxiety is crucial before providing education, as severe anxiety can hinder the client's ability to absorb new information. The nurse should offer emotional support, encourage the client to express concerns, and clarify any misconceptions. Acute pain is not a typical symptom of a detached retina, and the risk of infection preoperatively is minimal, making choices C and D less relevant in this scenario.
3. What is the most effective strategy to assist a client in recognizing and using personal strength?
- A. Encouraging the client's self-identification of strengths.
- B. Promoting the client's active external thinking.
- C. Listening to the client and providing advice as needed.
- D. Assisting the client in maintaining an external locus of control.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the client to identify their own strengths is empowering and helps build self-awareness and self-confidence. This strategy promotes autonomy and self-efficacy, enabling the client to recognize and utilize their personal strengths effectively. Option B, promoting the client's active external thinking, is vague and not directly related to recognizing personal strengths. Option C, listening to the client and providing advice as needed, focuses more on the nurse's role rather than empowering the client to recognize their strengths independently. Option D, assisting the client in maintaining an external locus of control, goes against the goal of helping the client recognize and utilize their internal strengths.
4. Why is starting a low CHO diet a contraindication for a client with renal insufficiency?
- A. As long as the client eats a minimum of 30g of CHO/day, there should be no problem.
- B. The client's clinical condition is a contraindication to starting a low CHO diet.
- C. Calcium supplements should be utilized to prevent the development of osteoporosis while on a low CHO diet.
- D. As long as the client eats foods that are high biologic protein sources, a low CHO diet can be followed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with renal insufficiency should not start a low CHO diet because it could result in an increased renal solute load. Clients with renal or liver disease require protein control in their diet to prevent complications. Proteins used must be of high biologic value, and protein intake is usually weight-based. Protein levels may be adjusted based on the client's clinical condition. A minimum level of carbohydrates is needed in the diet to spare protein. Vitamin and mineral supplements might be needed for clients with liver failure. The dietician plays a crucial role in calculating specific nutrient requirements for these clients and monitoring outcomes in conjunction with the healthcare team. Choice A is incorrect because simply consuming a minimum amount of carbohydrates does not address the issue of increased renal solute load. Choice C is incorrect as calcium supplements are not the primary concern when considering a low CHO diet for a client with renal insufficiency. Choice D is incorrect as the focus should be on the contraindication of a low CHO diet for a client with renal insufficiency rather than just high biologic protein sources.
5. A client receives a cervical intracavity radium implant as part of her therapy. A common side effect of a cervical implant is:
- A. creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.
- B. stomatitis.
- C. constipation.
- D. xerostomia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.' This side effect persists for 1 to 2 months after the removal of a cervical implant. Diarrhea, not constipation, is usually a side effect of cervical implants. Stomatitis and xerostomia are local side effects of radiation to the mouth, not associated with cervical implants. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.
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