Nursing Elites

1. A client with asthma develops respiratory acidosis. Based on this diagnosis, what should the nurse expect the client's serum potassium level to be?

• A. normal
• B. elevated
• C. low
• D. unrelated to the pH

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the body retains CO2, leading to increased hydrogen ion concentration and a drop in blood pH. As pH decreases, serum potassium levels increase due to the movement of potassium out of cells to compensate for the acidosis. Elevated serum potassium levels are expected in respiratory acidosis. Choice A ('normal') is incorrect because potassium levels are expected to be elevated in respiratory acidosis. Choice C ('low') is incorrect as potassium levels rise in this condition. Choice D ('unrelated to the pH') is incorrect as serum potassium levels are directly impacted by changes in pH in respiratory acidosis.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's serum glucose levels. Which of the following scenarios would indicate abnormal serum glucose values for a 30-year-old male?

• A. 70 mg/dL
• B. 55 mg/dL
• C. 110 mg/dL
• D. 100 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 55 mg/dL. The standard range for serum glucose levels is typically 60-115 mg/dL. A serum glucose level of 55 mg/dL falls below this range, indicating hypoglycemia. Options A, C, and D are within the standard range for serum glucose levels and would not be considered abnormal for a 30-year-old male.

3. The client with chronic pancreatitis should be taught how to monitor for which of the following possible additional problems associated with pancreatic disease?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Diabetes
• C. Hypothyroidism
• D. Graves' disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is diabetes. In chronic pancreatitis, the pancreas may become unable to produce sufficient insulin, leading to diabetes. This connection underscores the importance of monitoring blood sugar levels and understanding the signs and symptoms of diabetes in clients with chronic pancreatitis. Choice A, hypertension, is not directly associated with pancreatic disease but rather with cardiovascular health. Choice C, hypothyroidism, and Choice D, Graves' disease, are unrelated to pancreatic disease and are endocrine disorders affecting the thyroid gland.

4. Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?

• A. metoclopramide (Reglan)
• B. ondansetron (Zofran)
• C. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
• D. prochlorperazine (Compazine)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Zofran is a serotonin antagonist commonly used to relieve nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin receptors. Metoclopramide (Reglan) acts on dopamine receptors, hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine, and prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist. While these medications can also be used for nausea and vomiting, they do not primarily function as serotonin antagonists like ondansetron.

5. A patient has recently been prescribed Norvasc. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?

• A. Hypotension and Angina
• B. Hypertension
• C. Lower extremity edema
• D. Peripheral sensory loss and SOB

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension and Angina.' Norvasc is a medication known to cause hypotension (low blood pressure) and angina (chest pain) as side effects. These side effects are important for the patient to watch out for as they can indicate potential issues related to the medication. Choice B ('Hypertension') is incorrect as Norvasc is actually used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C ('Lower extremity edema') is not a common side effect of Norvasc. Choice D ('Peripheral sensory loss and SOB') is not typically associated with Norvasc's side effects.

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