Nursing Elites

1. The new mother asks why her baby has lost weight since he was born. The best explanation of the weight loss is:

• A. The baby is dehydrated due to polyuria.
• B. The baby is hypoglycemic due to lack of glucose.
• C. The baby is allergic to the formula the mother is giving him.
• D. The baby can lose up to 10% of weight due to meconium stool, loss of extracellular fluid, and initiation of breastfeeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After birth, newborns can lose weight due to meconium stool, loss of extracellular fluid, and the initiation of breastfeeding. This weight loss is a normal and expected physiological process, and infants can lose up to 10% of their birth weight during this period. There is no indication of dehydration (polyuria), hypoglycemia (lack of glucose), or allergy to the formula as reasons for weight loss in newborns. Therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect. Answer D provides the most accurate explanation for the observed weight loss in the newborn.

2. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:

• A. administer both medications simultaneously.
• B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them.
• C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug.
• D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.

3. The client is visiting a home health client with osteoporosis. The client has a new prescription for alendronate (Fosamax). Which instruction should be given to the client?

• A. Rest in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes
• B. Avoid rapid movements after taking the medication
• C. Take the medication with water only
• D. Allow at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and taking other medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax), instructing them to avoid rapid movements after taking the medication is crucial to prevent esophageal irritation. Resting in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes (choice A) is not necessary and can increase the risk of side effects. While taking the medication with water only (choice C) is generally recommended, the key instruction to prevent esophageal irritation is to avoid rapid movements. Allowing at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and other medications (choice D) is not specifically related to the administration of alendronate and is not the primary concern when giving instructions to the client.

4. When helping a client gain insight into anxiety, the nurse should:

• A. help the client relate anxiety to specific triggers.
• B. ask the client to describe events that precede increased anxiety.
• C. encourage the client to practice relaxation techniques.
• D. address the client's resistive behavior.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assisting a client in gaining insight into anxiety, it is crucial to explore the events that lead to increased anxiety. By asking the client to describe these events, the nurse can help the client recognize patterns and triggers, leading to a better understanding of their anxiety. Option A is incorrect because it refers to triggers rather than exploring the events leading to anxiety. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on relaxation techniques rather than delving into the root causes of anxiety. Option D is inappropriate as addressing resistive behavior may not foster a supportive therapeutic environment for the client.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a malignancy. The classification of the primary tumor is Tis. The nurse should plan care for a tumor:

• A. That can be assessed
• B. That is in situ
• C. With increasing lymph node involvement
• D. With distant metastasis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'That is in situ.' Cancer in situ means that the cancer is still localized to the primary site. Cancer is graded in terms of tumor, grade, node involvement, and metastasis. Answer A is incorrect because Tis indicates a tumor that is in situ and can be assessed. Answer C is incorrect because T indicates tumor, not node involvement. Answer D is incorrect because a tumor that is in situ is not metastasized.

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