the three major sequential maturational crises for females include
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NCLEX-PN

Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions

1. What are the three major sequential maturational crises for females?

Correct answer: puberty, pregnancy, and menopause.

Rationale: The three major sequential maturational crises affecting females are puberty, pregnancy, and menopause. Puberty signifies the beginning of menarche, the first menstrual period. Pregnancy is a transformative experience with long-lasting effects on a woman's life. Menopause marks the end of menstrual cycles. These milestones are well-documented in research and are significant events in a woman’s life. Nurses play a vital role in supporting females through these stages. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately represent the recognized sequential maturational crises in a female's life.

2. A 6-year-old with cerebral palsy functions at the level of an 18-month-old. Which finding would support that assessment?

Correct answer: She pulls a toy behind her

Rationale: The correct answer is 'She pulls a toy behind her.' This behavior is consistent with the developmental stage of an 18-month-old who enjoys push-pull toys. Dressing oneself usually begins around 3 years old, building a tower of eight blocks at approximately 3 years old, and copying a horizontal or vertical line at about 4 years old. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they represent skills that are typically observed in older children.

3. During a well-baby check of a 6-month-old infant, the nurse notes abrasions and petechiae of the palate. The nurse should:

Correct answer: inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse.

Rationale: The correct answer is to inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse. Injuries to the soft palate such as bruising, abrasions, and petechiae can be signs of sexual abuse in infants. While oral sex may not leave significant physical evidence, these findings should raise suspicion. Option A is correct as it focuses on addressing potential abuse. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because the child's diet, the type of bottle used for feedings, and play objects are not likely related to the observed injuries. The presence of oral injuries suggests considering sexual abuse rather than other factors.

4. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

Correct answer: naloxone (Narcan)

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

5. If the client is receiving peritoneal dialysis and the dialysate returns cloudy, what should the nurse do?

Correct answer: Send a specimen to the lab

Rationale: When the dialysate returns cloudy, it could indicate the presence of infection, and sending a specimen to the lab for evaluation is crucial to determine the cause. Documenting the finding alone, as in choice A, may not provide enough information for proper intervention. Straining the dialysate, as in choice C, is not a standard practice and may not help identify the underlying issue. Obtaining a complete blood count, as in choice D, is not directly related to addressing cloudiness in the dialysate. However, the healthcare provider might order a white blood cell count to assess for infection.

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