NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The nurse overhears two nursing students talking about a client in the cafeteria. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Report the incident to the nursing supervisor.
- B. Write up a variance report about the incident.
- C. Instruct the students that this is a violation of HIPAA.
- D. Notify the students' faculty regarding the violation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the students that discussing a client in a public area like the cafeteria violates HIPAA regulations. This is important to educate the students about patient confidentiality and the consequences of breaching it. Reporting to the nursing supervisor or faculty should come after addressing the students directly. Writing up a variance report is not the immediate action needed in this situation, as educating the students about their mistake should be the priority. It is essential to address the issue at the source by educating the students first rather than escalating the matter to supervisors or faculty immediately.
2. Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?
- A. metastatic liver cancer
- B. gram-negative septicemia
- C. pernicious anemia
- D. iron-deficiency anemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding compared to the other conditions listed. Pernicious anemia is a condition resulting from vitamin B12 deficiency due to the absence of intrinsic factor, necessary for B12 absorption. While pernicious anemia can lead to neurological issues, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of bleeding. Metastatic liver cancer can cause liver dysfunction leading to coagulopathy, gram-negative septicemia can result in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and iron-deficiency anemia can lead to microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, pernicious anemia is the least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding out of the options provided.
3. A 21-year-old college student has just learned that she contracted genital herpes from her sexual partner. After completing the initial history and assessment, the nurse has data concerning areas pertinent to the disease. The data is likely to include all but which of the following?
- A. voiding patterns
- B. characteristics of lesions
- C. vaginal discharge
- D. prior history of varicella
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'prior history of varicella.' When assessing a client with genital herpes, it is important to gather data on voiding patterns, characteristics of lesions, and vaginal discharge as these are pertinent to the disease. However, the prior history of varicella is not directly related to the current diagnosis of genital herpes. Varicella, which refers to chickenpox, is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, a different virus from the herpes simplex virus causing genital herpes.
4. The nurse should plan to evaluate the earliest onset of effectiveness of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) sublingual (SL) within what time frame?
- A. 15 seconds
- B. 3 minutes
- C. 5 minutes
- D. 15 minutes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The onset of action for Nitrostat SL is 1 to 3 minutes. Therefore, the nurse should plan to evaluate the earliest onset of effectiveness within 3 minutes after administering the medication. Option A, 15 seconds, is too short of a time frame for the onset of action of Nitrostat. Option C, 5 minutes, is slightly delayed compared to the typical onset time. Option D, 15 minutes, is too long to wait for evaluating the effectiveness of Nitrostat sublingual administration.
5. Which client should be seen first by the Emergency Department nurse?
- A. A six-year-old with a femur fracture.
- B. A two-year-old with a fever of 102 degrees F.
- C. A three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe.
- D. A two-year-old whose gastrostomy tube came out.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority in the emergency department is to assess and manage clients based on the severity of their condition. In this scenario, the three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe should be seen first because respiratory distress takes precedence over other conditions. Wheezing indicates potential airway compromise, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. The other options are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and breathing. A femur fracture, fever, or a dislodged gastrostomy tube can be addressed after ensuring the child with respiratory distress is stable.
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