Nursing Elites

1. A 27-year-old woman has delivered twins in the OB unit. The patient develops a condition of 5-centimeter diastasis recti abdominis. Which of the following statements is the most accurate when instructing the patient?

• A. Avoid sit-ups to prevent worsening the condition.
• B. Surgery is not always necessary for this condition.
• C. Guarding the abdominal region is important at this time.
• D. Antibiotics are not needed for diastasis recti abdominis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After experiencing diastasis recti abdominis, it is crucial for the patient to protect and guard the abdominal region to facilitate healing. Choice A is correct since avoiding sit-ups is important to prevent worsening the condition by increasing intra-abdominal pressure. Choice B is accurate as not all cases of diastasis recti abdominis require surgery; conservative management is often effective. Choice D is also correct as antibiotics are not indicated for diastasis recti abdominis since it is a separation of the abdominal muscles and not an infectious condition.

2. Which of the following should not be included in the teaching for clients who take oral iron preparations?

• A. Mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress.
• B. Take the iron with meals if GI distress occurs.
• C. Liquid forms should be taken with a straw to avoid discoloration of tooth enamel.
• D. Oral forms should be taken with juice, not milk.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress. This statement is incorrect because iron should not be mixed with antacids as it can significantly reduce the absorption of iron. Choice B is a good recommendation as taking iron with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal distress. Choice C is also correct as liquid forms of iron should be taken with a straw to prevent the discoloration of tooth enamel. Choice D is incorrect as iron preparations can be taken with juice or water, but not with milk, as calcium in milk can inhibit iron absorption.

3. A nurse is working in a pediatric clinic, and a 25-year-old mother comes in with a 4-week-old baby. The mother is stressed out about the loss of sleep, and the baby exhibits signs of colic. Which of the following techniques should the nurse teach the mother?

• A. Distraction of the infant with a red object
• B. Prone positioning techniques
• C. Tapping reflex techniques
• D. Neural warmth techniques

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Neural warmth techniques involve the caregiver providing a warm, soothing touch to the baby, which can help to lower the baby's agitation level and promote relaxation. This technique is beneficial for calming colicky babies. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because distraction with a red object, prone positioning, and tapping reflex techniques are not effective methods for managing colic in infants. Red object distraction is not a proven technique for soothing colicky babies. Prone positioning is not recommended for infants due to the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Tapping reflex techniques are not recognized as effective interventions for colic.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's arterial blood gas values. Which of the following conditions apply under the following values? pH- 7.49 Bicarbonate ion 24 mEq/dl PaCO2 - 31 mmHg PaO2 - 52 mmHg FiO2 - 0.22

• A. respiratory acidosis
• B. respiratory alkalosis
• C. metabolic acidosis
• D. metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The given blood gas values indicate respiratory alkalosis. A high pH and low PaCO2 level are consistent with respiratory alkalosis. In this scenario, no compensation for the alkalosis is noted, ruling out metabolic acidosis or alkalosis. Metabolic conditions would usually involve changes in bicarbonate levels, which remain within the normal range in this case.

5. During a home health visit, a nurse consults with a male patient diagnosed with CAD and COPD who is taking Ventolin, Azmacort, Aspirin, and Theophylline and complains of upset stomach, nausea, and discomfort. What should the nurse do?

• A. Contact the patient's physician immediately
• B. Recommend the patient lie on his right side
• C. Advise the patient to schedule a doctor's visit the next day
• D. Suggest holding the drug Azmacort

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to contact the patient's physician immediately. The patient's symptoms of upset stomach, nausea, and discomfort could indicate theophylline toxicity, a potentially serious condition. It is crucial to consult the physician promptly to address this issue. Option B, recommending the patient lie on his right side, is incorrect as it does not address the potential theophylline toxicity and is not a priority. Option C, advising the patient to schedule a doctor's visit the next day, is inappropriate as the symptoms may indicate an urgent concern. Option D, suggesting holding the drug Azmacort, is incorrect as it does not address the potential theophylline toxicity and should not be done without consulting the physician first.

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