Nursing Elites

1. A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?

• A. vitiligo
• B. erythema
• C. cyanosis
• D. chloasma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.

2. When inspecting the ears for cerumen impaction, the nurse checks for which finding?

• A. Redness and swelling of the tympanic membrane
• B. An external auditory canal that is longer than normal
• C. The presence of edema in the external auditory canal
• D. A yellowish or brownish waxy material in the external auditory canal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When inspecting the ears for cerumen impaction, the nurse should look for a yellowish or brownish waxy material in the external auditory canal. Cerumen, also known as ear wax, is a secretion that can become impacted due to various reasons. It is produced by the vestigial apocrine sweat glands in the external ear canal. Cerumen may partially obscure the eardrum or totally occlude the ear canal. The other options, redness and swelling of the tympanic membrane, an external auditory canal that is longer than normal, and the presence of edema in the external auditory canal, are not indicative findings of cerumen impaction.

3. A client asks the nurse what risk factors increase the chances of getting skin cancer. The risk factors include all except:

• A. light or fair complexion.
• B. exposure to sun for extended periods of time.
• C. certain diet and foods.
• D. history of bad sunburns.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'certain diet and foods.' Risk factors that increase the chances of getting skin cancer include having a light or fair complexion, a history of bad sunburns, personal or family history of skin cancer, outdoor activities with sun exposure, exposure to X-rays or radiation, exposure to certain chemicals, repeated trauma or injury resulting in scars, age over 50, male gender, and living in specific geographic locations. These factors can contribute to the development of skin cancer. Avoiding exposure to the sun, using protective clothing and sunscreen, and regular skin inspections are key preventive measures. Choice C, 'certain diet and foods,' is incorrect as diet is not a primary risk factor for skin cancer. Options A, B, and D are all valid risk factors associated with an increased risk of developing skin cancer.

4. When preparing to assist the healthcare provider in examining a client's skin with the use of a Wood light, what action should the nurse perform?

• A. Darken the room
• B. Obtain informed consent from the client
• C. Obtain a scalpel and a slide for diagnostic evaluation
• D. Obtain medication to anesthetize the skin area before proceeding with the examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When using a Wood light during a skin examination, the room should be darkened to enhance the visibility of fluorescence. The Wood light emits long-wavelength ultraviolet light, highlighting certain skin conditions. Darkening the room aids in better visualization. Obtaining informed consent is a crucial aspect of healthcare but not directly related to using a Wood light. Obtaining a scalpel and a slide is unnecessary for a noninvasive Wood light examination. Anesthetizing the skin area is not required as the procedure is painless and noninvasive.

5. A nurse is preparing to listen to the apical heart rate in the area of the mitral valve in an adult client. The nurse should place the stethoscope on which part of the client's chest?

• A. Second left interspace
• B. Second right interspace
• C. Left lower sternal border
• D. Fifth left interspace at the midclavicular line

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct placement for auscultating the apical heart rate in the area of the mitral valve is the fifth left interspace at the midclavicular line. Placing the stethoscope in the second left interspace would be to listen to the pulmonic valve, the second right interspace is for the aortic valve, and the left lower sternal border is for the tricuspid valve.

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