Nursing Elites

1. In the context of diagnostic genetic counseling, which of the following choices is typically not made by clients?

• A. Terminating the pregnancy.
• B. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs.
• C. Accessing support services before the birth.
• D. Completing the grieving process before the birth.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diagnostic genetic counseling, clients may face difficult decisions based on test results. Terminating the pregnancy is a choice some clients may consider if severe abnormalities are detected. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs involves getting ready to care for a child who may require extra attention and support. Accessing support services before the birth can help clients connect with resources and professionals for assistance during and after the pregnancy. Completing the grieving process before birth is not typically a choice made in the context of genetic counseling. The grieving process often starts or continues after distressing results and can extend beyond the birth of the child. Therefore, the correct answer is completing the grieving process before the birth.

2. In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?

• A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
• B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
• C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
• D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio

Correct answer: B

Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received the DTaP (diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus) vaccine along with the polio vaccine. The MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine is not typically given until the child is 12-15 months old. Therefore, option B is correct as it includes vaccines that are usually administered by 12 months of age. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they include vaccines that are typically given after 12 months of age.

3. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's record notes documentation that the client has melena. How does the healthcare professional detect the presence of melena?

• A. By checking the client's urine for blood
• B. By checking the client's stool for blood
• C. By checking the client's urine for a decrease in output
• D. By checking the client's bowel movements for diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Melena' is the term used to describe abnormal black tarry stool that has a distinctive odor and contains digested blood. It usually results from bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract and is often a sign of peptic ulcer disease or small bowel disease. The presence of melena is detected by checking the client's stool for blood. Blood in the client's urine, decreased urine output, and diarrhea are not associated with the assessment for melena.

4. A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to auscultate for bowel sounds. The nurse should use which technique?

• A. Begin in the right lower quadrant.
• B. Use the bell end of the stethoscope.
• C. Hold the stethoscope lightly against the skin.
• D. Listen for at least 5 minutes before deciding that bowel sounds are absent.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To auscultate for bowel sounds, the nurse should use the diaphragm end piece of the stethoscope as bowel sounds are relatively high pitched. The stethoscope should be held lightly against the skin to avoid stimulating more bowel sounds. The nurse should begin in the right lower quadrant at the ileocecal valve, where bowel sounds are normally present. It is recommended to listen for 5 minutes before deciding that bowel sounds are absent to ensure a thorough assessment. Choice B is incorrect because the bell end is used for low-pitched sounds such as heart sounds. Choice C is incorrect as holding the stethoscope firmly and deeply can cause unnecessary bowel sound stimulation. Choice D is incorrect as listening for 1 minute is insufficient to determine the presence or absence of bowel sounds.

5. A day care center has asked the nurse to provide education for parents regarding safety in the home. What type of preventive care does this represent?

• A. Primary
• B. Secondary
• C. Tertiary
• D. Health promotion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary prevention involves activities that promote wellness or prevent illness or injury. Educating parents about safety measures in the home aims to prevent injuries, making it a primary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and intervention in diseases or injuries. Tertiary prevention involves reducing disability and promoting optimal functioning in relation to a disease or injury. Health promotion encompasses activities that enhance a client's overall health and well-being. In this scenario, educating parents about safety in the home falls under primary prevention as it aims to prevent injuries before they occur.

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