a35 year old latin american client wishes to lose weight to reduce her chances of developing heart disease and diabetes the client states i do not kn
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. A 35-year-old Latin-American client wishes to lose weight to reduce her chances of developing heart disease and diabetes. The client states, “I do not know how to make my diet work with the kind of foods that my family eats.” What should the nurse do first to help the client determine a suitable diet for disease prevention?

Correct answer: Ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs.

Rationale: The correct first step is to assess the client's current diet by asking her to provide a list of the types of foods she eats. This assessment will help the nurse determine a personalized dietary plan based on the guidelines from the American Diabetes Association and the American Heart Association. Providing the client with copies of the guidelines is important but not the initial action. A high-protein diet plan may not be suitable for all clients aiming to prevent heart disease and diabetes. While providing information on risk factors is important, it is not the primary step in assisting the client with determining a suitable diet for disease prevention.

2. Central venous access devices (CVADs) are frequently utilized to administer chemotherapy. What is an advantage of using CVADs for chemotherapeutic agent administration?

Correct answer: Chemotherapeutic agents can be caustic to smaller veins.

Rationale: The correct advantage of using CVADs for chemotherapeutic agent administration is that chemotherapeutic agents can be caustic to smaller veins. Many chemotherapeutic drugs are vesicants, which can cause tissue damage even in low concentrations. Using a CVAD to administer these agents into a large vein is optimal as it reduces the risk of damage. Choice A is incorrect as CVADs are actually more expensive than a peripheral IV, making it a disadvantage. Choice B is incorrect because the frequency of administration depends on the specific drug being administered, not on the access device, so it does not represent a universal advantage. Choice D is incorrect because IV chemotherapeutic agents are typically not self-administered at home; they are usually given in a hospital, outpatient, or clinic setting, making it an invalid advantage of using CVADs.

3. What is the therapeutic range for carbamazepine (Tegretol)?

Correct answer: 4-10 mcg/mL

Rationale: The therapeutic range for carbamazepine (Tegretol) is 4-10 mcg/mL. This range is established based on the optimal balance between effectiveness and safety. Choices A, C, and D are outside the therapeutic range for carbamazepine, which could lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes or increased risk of toxicity. Choice B (4-10 mcg/mL) is the correct range recommended for therapeutic efficacy while minimizing adverse effects.

4. A nurse is preparing to screen a client’s vision with the use of a Snellen chart. The nurse uses which technique?

Correct answer: Tests the right eye, then tests the left eye, and finally tests both eyes together

Rationale: To test visual acuity with the use of a Snellen chart, the nurse places the chart in a well-lit spot at the client’s eye level, with the client positioned exactly 20 feet from the chart. The client shields one eye at a time with an opaque card during the test. After testing each eye separately, both eyes are assessed together. The client is asked to read the smallest line of letters visible and encouraged to read the next smallest line as well. Therefore, option A is correct as it describes the correct technique of testing one eye at a time before assessing both eyes together. Option B is incorrect as it assesses both eyes together first, which is not the standard procedure. Options C and D are incorrect as they suggest standing 40 feet from the chart, which contradicts the standard distance of 20 feet for a Snellen chart test.

5. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?

Correct answer: 100 mL/hr

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.

Similar Questions

A nurse is trying to motivate a client toward more effective management of a therapeutic regimen. Which of the following actions by the nurse is most likely to be effective in increasing the client’s motivation?
A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to assess the optic nerve. The nurse performs this examination by using which technique?
An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client’s cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?
Which of the following vaccines is not part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children?
The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be the least appropriate for pain management?

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses