Nursing Elites

1. A 35-year-old Latin-American client wishes to lose weight to reduce her chances of developing heart disease and diabetes. The client states, "I do not know how to make my diet work with the kind of foods that my family eats."? What should the nurse do first to help the client determine a suitable diet for disease prevention?

• A. Provide her with copies of the approved dietary guidelines from the American Diabetes Association and the American Heart Association.
• B. Ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs.
• C. Provide a high-protein diet plan for the client.
• D. Provide the client with information related to risk factors for heart disease and diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step is to assess the client's current diet by asking her to provide a list of the types of foods she eats. This assessment will help the nurse determine a personalized dietary plan based on the guidelines from the American Diabetes Association and the American Heart Association. Providing the client with copies of the guidelines is important but not the initial action. A high-protein diet plan may not be suitable for all clients aiming to prevent heart disease and diabetes. While providing information on risk factors is important, it is not the primary step in assisting the client with determining a suitable diet for disease prevention.

2. A nurse is explaining a nonstress test to a pregnant client. The nurse explains that the results are nonreactive if which finding is noted on the electronic monitoring recording strip?

• A. Two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at 15 beats/min above baseline and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline
• B. Accelerations without fetal movement with fetal heart rate (FHR) increases of 15 beats/min for 15 seconds
• C. Acceleration of the FHR by 25 to 30 beats/min for at least 15 seconds in response to fetal movement
• D. Absence of accelerations after fetal movement

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Absence of accelerations after fetal movement.' In a nonreactive (nonreassuring) stress test, the monitor recording would not show accelerations after fetal movement within a 40-minute period. This absence of accelerations indicates a nonreactive result. Choices A, B, and C describe different patterns of fetal heart rate accelerations that are not indicative of a nonreactive result in a nonstress test, making them incorrect. Choice A describes the characteristics of a reactive (reassuring) result, where there should be at least two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at least 15 beats/min above the baseline, and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline. Choice B incorrectly states 'Accelerations without fetal movement,' which is contradictory. Choice C describes an acceleration response to fetal movement, which does not signify a nonreactive result.

3. When inspecting the ears for cerumen impaction, the nurse checks for which finding?

• A. Redness and swelling of the tympanic membrane
• B. An external auditory canal that is longer than normal
• C. The presence of edema in the external auditory canal
• D. A yellowish or brownish waxy material in the external auditory canal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When inspecting the ears for cerumen impaction, the nurse should look for a yellowish or brownish waxy material in the external auditory canal. Cerumen, also known as ear wax, is a secretion that can become impacted due to various reasons. It is produced by the vestigial apocrine sweat glands in the external ear canal. Cerumen may partially obscure the eardrum or totally occlude the ear canal. The other options, redness and swelling of the tympanic membrane, an external auditory canal that is longer than normal, and the presence of edema in the external auditory canal, are not indicative findings of cerumen impaction.

4. An assessment of the skull of a normal 10-month-old baby should identify which of the following?

• A. closure of the posterior fontanel.
• B. closure of the anterior fontanel.
• C. overlap of cranial bones.
• D. ossification of the sutures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the closure of the posterior fontanel. By 10 months of age, the posterior fontanel should be closed. The anterior fontanel typically closes around 12-18 months of age. Overlapping of cranial bones is not a normal finding and may indicate craniosynostosis, a condition where the sutures close too early. Ossification of the sutures is also not a normal finding in a 10-month-old baby as the sutures should remain open to allow for the growth of the skull.

5. During a health assessment, a nurse is assisting with gathering subjective data from a client and plans to ask the client about the medical history of the client's extended family. About which family members would the nurse ask the client?

• A. Aunts, uncles, grandparents, and cousins
• B. Foster children and their parents
• C. Wife's children from a previous marriage
• D. Wife and wife's parents

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Aunts, uncles, grandparents, and cousins.' When gathering medical history from the client's extended family, it is essential to inquire about relatives beyond the nuclear family, such as aunts, uncles, grandparents, and cousins, as they share genetic and environmental influences. Choice C, 'Wife's children from a previous marriage,' pertains to stepchildren, not extended family members. Choice B, 'Foster children and their parents,' involves individuals who are not biologically related to the client's family. Choice D, 'Wife and wife's parents,' focuses solely on immediate family members and excludes the client's extended family members, which are crucial for a comprehensive health assessment.

Similar Questions