Nursing Elites

1. A 35-year-old Latin-American client wishes to lose weight to reduce her chances of developing heart disease and diabetes. The client states, "I do not know how to make my diet work with the kind of foods that my family eats."? What should the nurse do first to help the client determine a suitable diet for disease prevention?

• A. Provide her with copies of the approved dietary guidelines from the American Diabetes Association and the American Heart Association.
• B. Ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs.
• C. Provide a high-protein diet plan for the client.
• D. Provide the client with information related to risk factors for heart disease and diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step is to assess the client's current diet by asking her to provide a list of the types of foods she eats. This assessment will help the nurse determine a personalized dietary plan based on the guidelines from the American Diabetes Association and the American Heart Association. Providing the client with copies of the guidelines is important but not the initial action. A high-protein diet plan may not be suitable for all clients aiming to prevent heart disease and diabetes. While providing information on risk factors is important, it is not the primary step in assisting the client with determining a suitable diet for disease prevention.

2. After reviewing the child's immunization record, which scheduled vaccine should the nurse prepare to administer next?

• A. Hib
• B. IPV
• C. MMR
• D. DTaP

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is DTaP. DTaP is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age; between 15 and 18 months of age; and between 4 and 6 years of age. Since the child has only received three doses of this vaccine, the next dose of DTaP should be administered. The other options are incorrect because Hib is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 12 and 15 months; IPV is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 4 and 6 years of age; MMR is administered between 12 and 15 months of age and again between 4 and 6 years of age.

3. Which of the following substances need to be assessed when completing a family health assessment?

• A. coffee, tea, cola, cocoa, and other substances
• B. alcohol, tobacco, and illegal substances
• C. medicines prescribed by a physician
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When completing a family health assessment, it is essential to assess all substances consumed by family members, including coffee, tea, cola, cocoa, alcohol, tobacco, illegal substances, and medicines prescribed by a physician. Understanding the complete picture of substance use within the family is crucial for identifying potential health risks and providing appropriate care. Choice D, 'all of the above,' is the correct answer as it encompasses the comprehensive assessment of all substances. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they only present partial aspects of substance assessment and do not cover the full range of substances that should be evaluated in a family health assessment.

4. A nurse in the newborn nursery, assisting with data collection for a newborn, prepares to measure the chest circumference. The nurse places the tape measure around the infant at which location?

• A. In the axillary area
• B. At the level of the nipples
• C. Two inches below the nipples
• D. At the level of the umbilicus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The chest circumference of the infant is measured at the level of the nipples. It is usually 2 to 3 cm smaller than the head circumference. The average chest circumference is 30.5 to 33 cm (12-13 inches). When there is molding of the head, the head and chest measurements may be equal at birth. Placing the tape measure at the level of the nipples ensures accuracy and consistency in newborn assessment. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as the chest circumference is specifically measured at the level of the nipples to obtain precise measurements.

5. A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?

• A. Near vision
• B. Color vision
• C. Distant vision
• D. Peripheral vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.

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