Nursing Elites

1. A 35-year-old Latin-American client wishes to lose weight to reduce her chances of developing heart disease and diabetes. The client states, "I do not know how to make my diet work with the kind of foods that my family eats."? What should the nurse do first to help the client determine a suitable diet for disease prevention?

• A. Provide her with copies of the approved dietary guidelines from the American Diabetes Association and the American Heart Association.
• B. Ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs.
• C. Provide a high-protein diet plan for the client.
• D. Provide the client with information related to risk factors for heart disease and diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first step is to assess the client's current diet by asking her to provide a list of the types of foods she eats. This assessment will help the nurse determine a personalized dietary plan based on the guidelines from the American Diabetes Association and the American Heart Association. Providing the client with copies of the guidelines is important but not the initial action. A high-protein diet plan may not be suitable for all clients aiming to prevent heart disease and diabetes. While providing information on risk factors is important, it is not the primary step in assisting the client with determining a suitable diet for disease prevention.

2. When a client wishes to improve her appearance by removing excess skin from her face and neck, the nurse should provide teaching regarding which of the following procedures?

• A. dermabrasion
• B. rhinoplasty
• C. blepharoplasty
• D. rhytidectomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'rhytidectomy.' Rhytidectomy, commonly known as a face-lift, is the procedure for removing excess skin from the face and neck. Dermabrasion involves spraying a chemical to freeze the skin lightly, followed by abrasion with sandpaper or a revolving wire brush, used for removing scars, severe acne, and tattoo pigment. Rhinoplasty is for improving the nose's appearance by reshaping the nasal skeleton and overlying skin. Blepharoplasty removes loose and protruding fat from the upper and lower eyelids. Therefore, when a client wants to address excess skin in the face and neck, rhytidectomy is the appropriate procedure.

3. A multigravida pregnant woman asks the nurse when she will start to feel fetal movements. Around which week of gestation does the nurse tell the mother that fetal movements are first noticed?

• A. 16 weeks
• B. 6 weeks
• C. 8 weeks
• D. 12 weeks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fetal movements (quickening) are first noticed by multigravida pregnant women at 16 to 20 weeks of gestation and gradually increase in frequency and strength. This is when the mother typically begins to feel the baby's movements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fetal movements are not felt as early as 6, 8, or 12 weeks of gestation. At 6 weeks, the embryo's movements are not yet strong enough to be felt by the mother. By 8 weeks, the movements are still too subtle to be perceived. At 12 weeks, although fetal movements start, they are usually not strong enough to be felt by the mother.

4. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

5. During a routine health screening, the nurse should talk to the parents of a 1-year-old child about which of the following?

• A. the potential hazards of accidents
• B. appropriate nutrition now that the child has been weaned from breastfeeding
• C. toilet training
• D. how to prevent accidents in the house

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a routine health screening for a 1-year-old child, discussing the potential hazards of accidents is crucial. Accidents are the primary source of injury in children and can be life-threatening. Addressing appropriate nutrition now that the child has been weaned from breastfeeding should have already been discussed. Toilet training is important but is typically addressed at a later age as one year is too early for this milestone. While preventing accidents in the house is important, focusing on the potential hazards of accidents in general is more comprehensive and critical for the child's safety.

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