NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. The nurse is assessing an elder whom the nurse suspects is being physically abused. The most important question for the nurse to ask is:
- A. "How much money do you keep around the house?"?
- B. "Who provides your physical care?"?
- C. "How close does your nearest relative live?"?
- D. "What form of transportation do you use?"?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important question for the nurse to ask when suspecting elder abuse is 'Who provides your physical care?' This question is crucial as the primary caregiver, who is often the abuser in cases of elder abuse, lives with the client. Research has shown that spouses and adult children are the most common abusers. By inquiring about the provider of physical care, the nurse can assess the potential abuser's proximity to the elder. Choices A, C, and D are less pertinent to identifying the primary caregiver, who is more likely to be the abuser.
2. An infant weighs 7 pounds at birth. What is the expected weight by 1 year of age?
- A. 10 pounds
- B. 12 pounds
- C. 18 pounds
- D. 21 pounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A birth weight of 7 pounds typically triples by the age of 1 year, resulting in an expected weight of 21 pounds. This significant weight gain is a normal growth pattern for infants as they usually experience rapid growth in the first year of life. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not account for the usual growth rate of an infant in the first year. Infants commonly triple their birth weight by the age of 1, making 21 pounds the expected weight.
3. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?
- A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
- B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
- C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
- D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.
4. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:
- A. administer both medications simultaneously.
- B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them.
- C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug.
- D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.
5. A client is 2 days post-operative colon resection. After a coughing episode, the client's wound eviscerates. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
- A. Reinsert the protruding organ and cover with 4x4s
- B. Cover the wound with a sterile 4x4 and ABD dressing
- C. Cover the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing
- D. Apply an abdominal binder and manual pressure to the wound
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario where a client's wound eviscerates, the most appropriate nursing action is to cover the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing. Reinserting the protruding organ, as mentioned in choice A, is incorrect because it can lead to further complications requiring the client to return to surgery. Choice B, covering the wound with a sterile 4x4 and ABD dressing, is not ideal as it may not provide adequate protection and moisture for the exposed tissue. Choice D, applying an abdominal binder and manual pressure to the wound, is inappropriate as it does not address the specific needs of wound evisceration. Covering the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing helps maintain a moist environment, protects the exposed tissue, and prevents infection, promoting optimal wound healing and reducing the risk of complications.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access