Nursing Elites

1. The client is admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Blood gases reveal pH 7.36, CO2 45, O2 84, HCO3 28. The nurse would assess the client to be in:

• A. Uncompensated acidosis
• B. Compensated alkalosis
• C. Compensated respiratory acidosis
• D. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is experiencing compensated respiratory acidosis. The pH is within the normal range but is lower than 7.40, indicating acidity. The elevated CO2 level and low O2 level suggest respiratory involvement. The slightly elevated HCO3 level indicates a compensatory mechanism. In respiratory acidosis, the pH will be inversely related to the CO2 and bicarb levels, with elevated CO2 and HCO3 levels contributing to acidosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the presented blood gas values and the compensatory response observed in this case.

2. The nurse is assigning staff for the day. Which assignment should be given to the nursing assistant?

• A. Taking the vital signs of the 5-month-old with bronchiolitis
• B. Taking the vital signs of the 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy
• C. Administering medication to the 2-year-old with periorbital cellulitis
• D. Adjusting the traction of the 1-year-old with a fractured tibia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate assignment for a nursing assistant is to take the vital signs of a stable patient. A 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy is considered stable, and routine vital signs monitoring can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant. Clients with bronchiolitis, periorbital cellulitis, and a fractured tibia require more specialized care and assessment by a licensed nurse. Bronchiolitis involves an airway alteration, periorbital cellulitis indicates an infection, and a fractured tibia may raise concerns of abuse. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect for delegation to a nursing assistant.

3. A 32-year-old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache, abdominal pain, and trouble sleeping. In the past, the physician has dutifully prescribed medication, but little else. Which of the following comments by the nurse to the physician is appropriate?

• A. "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."?
• B. "Often women become offended if asked about their safety in relationships."?
• C. "It is mandatory that all women be questioned about domestic violence."?
• D. "How would you feel to know that her partner is beating her and you didn't ask?"?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."? There is a well-documented correlation between vague symptoms like abdominal pain and battered woman syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to inquire about potential domestic violence when presented with such symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as studies show that women are not generally offended by appropriately phrased questions about their safety in relationships. While it is not mandatory to question all women about domestic violence, it is advisable to at least ask a screening question regarding safety. Choice D is inappropriate as it uses a shaming tactic, which is not constructive and may create a hostile work environment. It's important for healthcare professionals to approach sensitive topics like domestic violence with empathy and professionalism.

4. The licensed practical nurse assigned to the postpartum unit is preparing to administer Rhogam to a postpartum client. Which woman is not a candidate for RhoGam?

• A. A gravida IV para 3 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
• B. A gravida I para 1 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
• C. A gravida II para 0 that is Rh negative admitted after a stillbirth delivery
• D. A gravida IV para 2 that is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The mothers in answers A, B, and C all require RhoGam as they are Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby or have experienced a stillbirth delivery, making them candidates for RhoGam injection. The mother in answer D is the only one who does not require Rhogam because she is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby, eliminating the need for RhoGam administration.

5. A client with pancreatitis has been transferred to the intensive care unit. Which order would the nurse anticipate?

• A. Blood pressure monitoring every 15 minutes
• B. Insertion of a Levine tube
• C. Continuous cardiac monitoring
• D. Administration of pain medication every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with pancreatitis who frequently experiences nausea and vomiting, insertion of a Levine tube is often anticipated to decompress the stomach and rest the bowel, helping to alleviate symptoms. This intervention is crucial in managing the gastrointestinal symptoms associated with pancreatitis. Blood pressure monitoring every 15 minutes may be necessary in some cases, but it is not a routine order for pancreatitis, making option A less likely. Continuous cardiac monitoring could be required based on the individual's condition, but it is not typically the first priority in pancreatitis management, so option C is not the most anticipated order. While pain medication administration is essential for managing discomfort, the priority in this scenario, especially considering the symptoms of nausea and vomiting, would be decompression with a Levine tube to address gastrointestinal issues, making option D less likely.

Similar Questions