Nursing Elites

1. A 57-year-old woman is recently widowed. She states, "I will never be able to learn how to manage the finances. My husband did all of that."? Select the nurse's response that could help raise the client's self-esteem.

• A. "You feel inadequate because you have never learned to balance a checkbook."?
• B. "You should have insisted your husband teach you about the finances."?
• C. "You are strong and will learn how to manage your finances after a while."?
• D. "I believe in your strength to learn how to manage your finances in time."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should aim to boost the client's self-esteem by providing positive reinforcement. By stating, "You are strong and will learn how to manage your finances after a while,"? the nurse acknowledges the client's strength and capability, encouraging her to believe in herself. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on the client's inadequacy rather than empowering her. Choice B places unnecessary blame on the client for not taking action in the past. Choice D, though positive, slightly alters the nurse's original phrase, making choice C the most appropriate response to uplift the client's self-esteem.

2. A contraindication for topical corticosteroid use in a client with atopic dermatitis (eczema) is:

• A. parasitic infection
• B. fungal infection
• C. spirochetal infection
• D. viral infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Topical corticosteroids are mainly used for their localized effects. When treating atopic dermatitis with a steroidal preparation, there is a risk of the site being vulnerable to invasion by organisms. Viruses like herpes simplex or varicella zoster pose a threat of disseminated infection. Therefore, viral infection is a contraindication for topical corticosteroid use in clients with atopic dermatitis. It is crucial to educate clients using topical corticosteroids to avoid crowds or people with infections and to promptly report any signs of infection. Choices A, B, and C (parasitic, fungal, and spirochetal infections) are not typically contraindications for topical corticosteroid use in the context of atopic dermatitis, as these agents do not pose the same risk of disseminated infection or systemic effects as viral infections.

3. Which of the following roommates would be best for the client newly admitted with gastric resection?

• A. A client with Crohn's disease
• B. A client with pneumonia
• C. A client with gastritis
• D. A client with phlebitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most suitable roommate for the client newly admitted with gastric resection is the client with phlebitis. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the blood vessel and is not infectious, making it a safer option for the surgical client. Crohn's disease clients (choice A) have frequent stools that might spread infections to the surgical client, posing a risk. A client with pneumonia (choice B) is coughing, which can disturb the gastric client's recovery. Additionally, a client with gastritis (choice C) who is vomiting and experiencing diarrhea would also not be an ideal roommate for a client recovering from gastric resection.

4. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for removal of a pituitary tumor using the transsphenoidal approach. The nurse should be particularly alert for:

• A. Nasal congestion
• B. Abdominal tenderness
• C. Muscle tetany
• D. Oliguria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the removal of a pituitary tumor using the transsphenoidal approach, nasal congestion is a significant concern as it can further obstruct the airway. This can be due to mucosal swelling, bleeding, or edema resulting from the surgery. Nasal congestion requires immediate attention to prevent airway compromise. Abdominal tenderness, muscle tetany, and oliguria are not directly associated with the pituitary gland or the transsphenoidal approach, making them incorrect choices. Abdominal tenderness is more common in abdominal or pelvic surgeries due to intra-abdominal issues. Muscle tetany is related to electrolyte imbalances or neuromuscular disorders, not specific to pituitary surgery. Oliguria is a concern in renal-related conditions, not typically in pituitary tumor surgeries.

5. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?

• A. a client with renal impairment
• B. a client with hypertension
• C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
• D. a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.

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