Nursing Elites

1. The LPN on shift notices a client coming into the clinic with bruises on his arm. The client seems very afraid and doesn't speak much, which concerns the nurse because these are signs of physical abuse. The nurse should ____.

• A. use therapeutic communication to talk to the client and offer support while reporting the findings to the appropriate authorities based on the state requirements and protocols
• B. report the findings to the appropriate authorities based on the state requirements and protocols
• C. ignore the bruises, as this is not why the client is being treated and is not appropriate for the nurse to address
• D. report the suspected abuse to another nurse and collaborate on how to handle it

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of suspected abuse, healthcare providers have a legal and ethical obligation to report such incidents to the relevant authorities. This not only ensures the safety and well-being of the client but also helps in preventing further harm. Option A is incorrect as attempting to gather evidence of abuse may interfere with the official investigation and is not the nurse's role. Offering support is crucial, but the priority is to report the findings to the appropriate authorities. Option C is incorrect as ignoring signs of abuse goes against the duty of a healthcare provider to protect their clients. Option D is incorrect as reporting suspected abuse to other nurses without involving the appropriate authorities may delay necessary actions and intervention.

2. When evaluating a kinetic family drawing, which of the following nursing actions is most effective?

• A. instructing the child to draw their family doing something
• B. suggesting specific elements to include in the drawing
• C. discouraging the child from discussing the drawing
• D. noting the omission of any family members

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When evaluating a kinetic family drawing, the most effective nursing action is noting the omission of any family members. This approach helps healthcare providers gather crucial information about family dynamics. It is important to pay attention to what the child includes and omits in the drawing, as it can provide insights into underlying emotions and concerns. Choices A, B, and C are not recommended actions for evaluating the drawing. Instructing the child to draw their family doing something or suggesting specific elements to include may bias the drawing, leading to misinterpretations. Discouraging the child from discussing the drawing can impede communication and the understanding of the child's perspective.

3. When determining a fetal heart rate (FHR) and noting accelerations from the baseline rate when the fetus is moving, a nurse interprets this finding as:

• A. A reassuring sign
• B. An indication of the need to contact the physician
• C. An indication of fetal distress
• D. A nonreassuring sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse notes accelerations from the baseline rate of the fetal heart rate, particularly when they occur with fetal movement, it is considered a reassuring sign. This indicates a healthy response to fetal activity. Reassuring signs in FHR monitoring include an average rate between 120 and 160 beats/min at term, a regular rhythm with slight fluctuations, accelerations from the baseline rate (often associated with fetal movement), and the absence of decreases from the baseline rate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because accelerations in FHR with fetal movement are not indicative of the need to contact the physician, fetal distress, or a nonreassuring sign. These signs would typically be associated with other abnormal FHR patterns that would warrant further assessment and intervention.

4. A paraplegic client is in the hospital to be treated for an electrolyte imbalance. Which level of care is the client currently receiving?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. The client is currently receiving secondary prevention care. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for clients experiencing health problems. In this case, the electrolyte imbalance is a health problem that requires treatment to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because primary prevention is focused on health promotion and specific protections against illness before it occurs, tertiary prevention is aimed at helping rehabilitate clients after the illness is diagnosed and treated, and health promotion is a broader concept that includes activities aimed at improving overall health and well-being rather than targeting a specific health problem like an electrolyte imbalance.

5. The LPN has been asked to help a client taking Risperdal with activities of daily living in the morning. Which of these tasks is most likely to be potentially impacted by this medication?

• A. eating breakfast
• B. drinking fluids
• C. getting out of bed to use the bathroom
• D. brushing teeth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'getting out of bed to use the bathroom.' Risperdal can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a drop in blood pressure when changing positions from lying down to standing up. This effect increases the risk of falls, emphasizing the need to assist the client with this task to prevent potential harm. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be directly impacted by the medication, unlike the significant risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with changing positions.

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