Nursing Elites

1. A male client is learning about testicular self-examination (TSE) from a nurse. Which statement should the nurse make to the client?

• A. 'A good time to examine the testicles is during or after you take a shower.'
• B. 'If you notice an enlarged testicle or a lump, you need to notify the physician.'
• C. 'The testicle is round and smooth. It feels firm and without lumps.'
• D. 'Perform a testicular exam monthly to detect early signs of testicular cancer.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make to the client is 'If you notice an enlarged testicle or a lump, you need to notify the physician.' During a shower or bath is the best time to examine the testes because warm temperatures make the testes hang lower in the scrotum. The testes should feel round and smooth, without lumps. Self-examination should be performed monthly to detect any abnormalities early. The physician needs to be notified immediately if any abnormal findings are noticed. Choice A is incorrect because the best time for TSE is during or after a warm shower or bath, not just before. Choice C is incorrect as the testicle should feel round, smooth, and without lumps, not egg-shaped and lumpy. Choice D is incorrect as monthly self-examinations are recommended, not every 2 months.

2. When assessing Mr. Lee's eye condition, what general information should the nurse seek?

• A. Type of employment.
• B. Burning or itchy sensation in the eyes.
• C. Position of the eyelids.
• D. Existence of floaters.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient's eye condition, the nurse should seek general information such as the type of employment, activities, allergies, medications, lenses, and protective devices used. This information helps in understanding potential exposures to irritants and risks related to activities. While the presence of burning or itchy sensation in the eyes, position of the eyelids, and existence of floaters are important aspects to assess during a focused eye examination, during the initial assessment, the type of employment is more relevant for understanding possible environmental factors affecting eye health.

3. When inspecting the client's eyelids for ptosis, the nurse is checking for which abnormality?

• A. Drooping
• B. Pupil dilation
• C. Pupil constriction
• D. Deviation of ocular movements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse inspects a client's eyelids for ptosis, they are checking for drooping. Ptosis is a condition characterized by the drooping of the eyelids and can be associated with various disorders such as myasthenia gravis, dysfunction of cranial nerve III, and Bell's palsy. Pupil dilation and constriction are assessed using a flashlight to check pupillary response. Deviation of ocular movements is evaluated by leading the client's eyes through the six cardinal positions of gaze. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct answer is 'Drooping' as it specifically relates to the abnormality associated with ptosis.

4. As part of a routine health screening, the nurse notes the play of a 2-year-old child. Which of the following is an example of age-appropriate play at this age?

• A. builds towers with several blocks
• B. tries to color within the lines
• C. says "Mine!"? when playing with toys
• D. tries to jump rope

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a 2-year-old child, saying 'Mine!' when playing with toys is an example of age-appropriate play. Toddlers at this age are possessive and asserting their sense of ownership. Building towers with blocks and trying to color within the lines involve more advanced motor skills and cognitive abilities that are typically not fully developed in a 2-year-old. Jumping rope requires coordination and balance beyond what a 2-year-old can usually achieve. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not considered age-appropriate plays for a 2-year-old child.

5. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

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