Nursing Elites

1. The home health nurse has made a visit to an 85-year-old female client's home who has recently had surgery to replace her left knee. The client has been discharged from a rehab facility and has been able to walk on her own. The nurse assesses the need for teaching related to fall prevention. What should the nurse include in this teaching plan?

• A. The client should remove all scatter rugs from the floor and minimize clutter.
• B. The client should not limit her movement within the home unless advised by the physician.
• C. The client should have a raised toilet seat and grab bars available in the bathroom.
• D. The client should not wear a robe and socks while walking in the house.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to remove all scatter rugs from the floor and minimize clutter. Rugs and clutter are common causes of falls in the home, especially for the elderly or those with gait issues. Removing them can significantly reduce the risk of falls. While having a raised toilet seat and grab bars in the bathroom is important for safety, it is not the priority in this scenario. The client should not limit her movement within the home unless specifically advised by the physician, as maintaining mobility is essential for recovery. Lastly, the client should avoid wearing robes and socks while walking in the house to prevent tripping, slipping, or falling on slippery floors.

2. The LPN is taking care of a 176-pound client who has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. The primary healthcare provider has written an order for Lantus� (insulin glargine injection) 100 units/mL, using weight-based dosing of 0.2 units/kg per day. The LPN should prepare ____ units for administration.

• A. 12
• B. 35
• C. 16
• D. 9

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dosage, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms. As 1 kg = 2.2 pounds, 176 pounds � 2.2 = 80 kg. The client should receive 0.2 units for every kilogram, which equals 16 units. Therefore, the total amount to prepare is 16 units x 100 units/mL = 1600 units. Considering the medication concentration of 100 units/mL, 1600 units � 100 units/mL = 16 mL. However, since the question asks for the number of units, the final answer is 16 units x 2 injections = 32 units. Therefore, the LPN should prepare 32 units for administration.

3. The client has been on vancomycin for three days. Which of the following symptoms is least concerning?

• A. nausea
• B. headache
• C. vertigo
• D. tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'headache.' While vancomycin can cause ototoxicity leading to symptoms like tinnitus, vertigo, and nausea, headaches are not typically associated with vancomycin use. Therefore, headache is the least concerning symptom in this scenario. Nausea, vertigo, and tinnitus are more likely to be related to vancomycin ototoxicity and should be closely monitored and reported. Headache is a common symptom that may not be directly linked to vancomycin use.

4. A sexually active married couple, discussing birth control methods with the nurse, expresses the need for a method that is convenient. Because the couple has told the nurse that family-planning goals have been met, which method of birth control does the nurse suggest?

• A. Diaphragm
• B. Sterilization
• C. Male condom
• D. Spermicide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, since the couple has indicated that their family-planning goals have been met, a permanent method of contraception like sterilization would be most suitable. Sterilization offers long-term effectiveness and convenience once the decision to stop having children is made. Options like the diaphragm, male condom, or spermicide are more suitable for temporary contraception or when the family-planning goals have not yet been achieved. Therefore, the correct answer is sterilization, as it aligns with the couple's need for a convenient and permanent birth control method.

5. All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:

• A. hot flashes
• B. loss of reproductive ability
• C. headaches
• D. heart palpitations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Male climacteric, also known as andropause, is a stage in a man's life characterized by a decline in testosterone levels and various physical and emotional changes. While men may experience symptoms like hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations during male climacteric, they do not typically lose their reproductive ability. Although fertility may decrease with age due to reduced testosterone production, men do not entirely lose the ability to reproduce. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of reproductive ability.' Choices A, C, and D are symptoms that can be associated with male climacteric, making them incorrect answers.

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