NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. The LPN is taking care of a client with a documented allergy to Penicillin. After rounds, the LPN notices that the client has an order for Cefazolin. Which of the following actions would be the least appropriate?
- A. The LPN clarifies the severity of the Penicillin allergy.
- B. The LPN discusses the order with the care team prior to administering Cefazolin.
- C. The LPN administers all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin.
- D. The LPN monitors the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is administered.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The least appropriate action is for the LPN to administer all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin. The LPN should always consider the client's documented allergy to Penicillin seriously. It is crucial to discuss the order with the care team before administering Cefazolin to ensure patient safety. Administering a medication that could potentially cause harm due to a documented allergy is unsafe practice. While monitoring the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is important, it should not precede clarification with the care team regarding the allergy and the appropriateness of the medication. Therefore, withholding the Cefazolin is the most appropriate action in this scenario.
2. Which of the following foods is a complete protein?
- A. corn
- B. eggs
- C. peanuts
- D. sunflower seeds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'eggs.' Eggs are considered a complete protein as they contain all nine essential amino acids required by the body. On the other hand, corn, peanuts, and sunflower seeds are incomplete proteins, meaning they lack one or more of the essential amino acids needed by the body for optimal health. Corn, peanuts, and sunflower seeds are plant-based proteins that are deficient in one or more essential amino acids, unlike eggs, which are a high-quality complete protein source.
3. A nurse preparing to assist with data collection of the abdomen asks the client to void and then assists the client into a supine position. Which primary finding does the nurse expect to note on percussing all four quadrants of the abdominal cavity?
- A. Dullness
- B. Tympany
- C. Borborygmus
- D. Hyperresonance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse expects to primarily note tympany when percussing the abdomen. Tympany should predominate because air in the intestines rises to the surface when the client is in a supine position. Dullness is usually heard over a distended bladder, adipose tissue, fluid, or a mass. Borborygmus, which refers to hyperperistalsis, is typically heard on auscultation, not percussion. Hyperresonance is present with gaseous distention, not the typical finding when percussing all four quadrants of the abdomen.
4. A healthcare provider is assisting with data collection on a client for the major risk factors associated with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which modifiable risk factor does the healthcare provider obtain data on from the client?
- A. Age
- B. Ethnicity
- C. Hypertension
- D. Genetic inheritance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypertension.' Risk factors for CAD are categorized as modifiable and unmodifiable. Unmodifiable risk factors include age, sex, ethnicity, genetic predisposition, and family history of heart disease. Modifiable risk factors include increased concentrations of serum lipids, hypertension, cigarette smoking, obesity, and level of physical activity. In this case, hypertension is a modifiable risk factor that the healthcare provider would obtain data on. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because age, ethnicity, and genetic inheritance are unmodifiable risk factors for CAD, not modifiable ones.
5. When teaching parents how their children learn sex role identification, the nurse should include which of the following statements?
- A. Sex role identification begins in infancy.
- B. Sex role identification begins in the preschool years.
- C. Sex role identification begins during the school-age years.
- D. Sex role identification begins during early adolescence.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Sex role identification begins during infancy as infants can identify body parts by the end of the first year. Preschoolers often engage in masturbation and sex play. School-age children continue to develop awareness of their sexual identity, including behaviors like hugging and kissing. Early adolescence sees further development influenced by sexual maturation and experimentation with sex roles. Therefore, the correct statement is that sex role identification begins in infancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they misrepresent the timeline of the development of sex role identification in children.
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