Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted to the hospital has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order in his medical record. The nurse understands which information about DNR orders?

• A. The only individuals who may change the DNR order are healthcare providers
• B. The DNR order can be changed if the client's condition warrants it
• C. The DNR order does not remain fixed for the duration of the client's hospitalization
• D. The DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy

Correct answer: The DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy

Rationale: The correct answer is that the DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. If the client’s condition changes, the DNR order may need to be changed. For this reason, DNR orders require frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. A DNR order may be changed at any time and does not remain in effect for the duration of the client’s hospitalization. The client’s request regarding DNR status is the priority. Choice A is incorrect because healthcare providers, not just immediate family members, may change the DNR order based on the client's condition. Choice B is incorrect as DNR orders can be changed if the client's condition warrants it, not remaining unchanged. Choice C is incorrect as DNR orders are not fixed for the duration of hospitalization, they can be modified based on the client's needs.

2. An example of a process standard on a med-surg unit is:

• A. a procedure for changing IV tubing.
• B. a policy for staffing.
• C. the job description of the CEO (chief executive officer).
• D. a procedure for checking waveforms on a client being treated with an intra-aortic balloon pump.

Correct answer: a procedure for changing IV tubing.

Rationale: Process standards define the actions and behaviors required by staff to provide care on a med-surg unit. A procedure for changing IV tubing is a critical psychomotor skill necessary for safe and effective patient care in this setting. Choice B, a policy for staffing, pertains more to organizational management rather than specific care processes on the unit. Choice C, the job description of the CEO, delineates the responsibilities of the organization's top executive and is not a process standard for frontline staff. Choice D, a procedure for checking waveforms on a client with an intra-aortic balloon pump, is more specific to a cardiac care unit and not typically performed on a med-surg unit.

3. A nurse working the 7 a.m. to 3 p.m. shift is reviewing the records of the assigned clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client scheduled for hemodialysis at 10 a.m.
• B. A client scheduled for contrast computed tomography (CT) at noon.
• C. A client scheduled for a nuclear scanning procedure at 10 a.m.
• D. A client scheduled for hydrotherapy for the treatment of a burn injury at 10:30 a.m.

Correct answer: A client scheduled for hemodialysis at 10 a.m.

Rationale: The correct answer is the client scheduled for hemodialysis at 10 a.m. This client needs immediate assessment before the procedure, which may take up to 5 hours. The nurse should ensure the client is physically and emotionally prepared, check for fluid overload by assessing weight and lung sounds, review vital signs, and laboratory test results. The other clients described in the options have needs that are not as urgent. The client scheduled for a nuclear scanning procedure at 10 a.m. may require information reinforcement and increased fluid intake before the procedure. The client scheduled for hydrotherapy for the treatment of a burn injury at 10:30 a.m. may need pain medication administered 30 minutes prior to the therapy. The client scheduled for a contrast CT at noon may need procedure information reinforcement and a special contrast preparation just before the procedure.

4. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

• A. Brown-Séquard syndrome
• B. posterior cord syndrome
• C. central cord syndrome
• D. cauda equina syndrome

Correct answer: Brown-Séquard syndrome

Rationale: Brown-Séquard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

5. A nurse enters a client’s room to administer a medication that has been prescribed by the health care provider. The client asks the nurse about the medication. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. ''I know that it’s for fluid buildup, and I think you’ve taken it before.''
• B. ''It’s called furosemide (Lasix), and it will promote urination and rid your body of the excess fluid. It can cause an alteration in electrolyte levels, so we’ll need to increase the potassium in your diet.''
• C. ''It’s to help get rid of the swelling in your feet.''
• D. ''You need to discuss this medication with your health care provider.''

Correct answer: ''It’s called furosemide (Lasix), and it will promote urination and rid your body of the excess fluid. It can cause an alteration in electrolyte levels, so we’ll need to increase the potassium in your diet.''

Rationale: A client has the right to be informed of the medication name, purpose, action, and potential undesirable effects of a prescribed medication. The nurse should provide adequate information to the client. Choice B is the correct answer as it includes the medication name, its purpose (promoting urination and eliminating excess fluid), and a potential side effect (alteration in electrolyte levels) with a plan for managing it (increasing potassium in the diet). This response demonstrates thorough and complete information. Choice A provides some information but lacks details on potential side effects and dietary adjustments. Choice C is vague and does not provide specific details about the medication. Choice D deflects the client's question and does not fulfill the client's right to information.

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