Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted to the hospital has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order in his medical record. The nurse understands which information about DNR orders?

• A. The only individuals who may change the DNR order are healthcare providers
• B. The DNR order can be changed if the client's condition warrants it
• C. The DNR order does not remain fixed for the duration of the client's hospitalization
• D. The DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. If the client's condition changes, the DNR order may need to be changed. For this reason, DNR orders require frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. A DNR order may be changed at any time and does not remain in effect for the duration of the client's hospitalization. The client's request regarding DNR status is the priority. Choice A is incorrect because healthcare providers, not just immediate family members, may change the DNR order based on the client's condition. Choice B is incorrect as DNR orders can be changed if the client's condition warrants it, not remaining unchanged. Choice C is incorrect as DNR orders are not fixed for the duration of hospitalization, they can be modified based on the client's needs.

2. Which of these statements from the caregiver of a palliative care client indicates a proper understanding?

• A. This treatment plan usually indicates a prognosis of less than 6 months.
• B. We will need to stay in the hospital to receive this level of care.
• C. The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.
• D. The medications to treat the underlying disease will be continued.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.' This statement reflects a proper understanding of palliative care, which focuses on improving the patient's quality of life and providing comfort. It does not necessarily mean a prognosis of less than 6 months or require hospitalization. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care can be provided regardless of the prognosis. Choice B is wrong as palliative care can be administered in various settings, not just hospitals. Choice D is inaccurate as palliative care aims to improve symptoms and quality of life, so medications may be adjusted but not necessarily stopped.

3. How many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small, wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher?

• A. 1 foot
• B. 2 feet
• C. 4 feet
• D. 6 feet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should stand about 6 feet from the source of the fire. Getting closer might put the nurse in danger. Choice A, 1 foot, is incorrect because it is too close to the fire and can expose the nurse to unnecessary risk. Choice B, 2 feet, is also too close to the fire and may lead to potential harm. Similarly, choice C, 4 feet, is not the ideal distance as it is still within the range of potential danger. The correct answer is D, 6 feet, which is a safe distance for the nurse to extinguish the fire effectively without risking personal safety.

4. A nurse is assisting with data collection of a client who has sustained circumferential burns of both legs. What should the nurse examine first?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Peripheral pulses
• C. Blood pressure (BP)
• D. Radial pulse rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for a client with circumferential burns to the legs is to examine peripheral pulses. This is essential to ensure adequate circulation to the extremities. Circumferential burns can lead to compartment syndrome, causing decreased circulation to the affected limbs. Checking peripheral pulses is crucial to monitor for any signs of compromised circulation. While heart rate and blood pressure are important assessments in general, in the context of circumferential burns, the immediate concern is the risk of impaired circulation to the extremities. Therefore, assessing peripheral pulses takes precedence in this situation.

5. Common problems for supervisors include all of the following except:

• A. the supervisor facilitates development of staff members
• B. the supervisor micromanages staff members
• C. the supervisor wants to control the style in which a staff member correctly performs a task
• D. the supervisor does not delegate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Common problems for supervisors include micromanaging staff members, wanting to control the style in which a staff member performs a task, and not delegating tasks effectively. These behaviors can hinder team building and overall effectiveness. Facilitating the development of staff members, on the other hand, is a positive attribute for a supervisor as it helps in nurturing the skills and growth of the team members. Therefore, the correct answer is 'the supervisor facilitates development of staff members' as this is not a common problem but a desirable quality in a supervisor.

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